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Monday, October 30, 2017

English Questions For IBPS RRB PO and Clerk Mains 2017

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English Section is a topic that is feared by most of the candidates appearing in the IBPS RRB PO and Clerk Exam. Though the sheer number of concepts and rules may seem intimidating at first, with discipline and the right approach, it is not difficult to master these concepts and their application to questions. Through such English Quizzes for IBPS RRB Clerk, IBPS RRB PO and other upcoming exams, we will provide you with all types of high-level questions to ace the questions based on new pattern English for IBPS RRB PO.

Directions (1-15): For each of the words below, a contextual usage is provided. Pick the word/phrase from the alternatives that is most the appropriate substitute in the given context and mark its number as your answer.

Q1.Marginalize: Rohingya refugees are being treated as marginalized people.
(a) important
(b) beautiful
(c) border
(d) meaning
(e) criticize
Ans.(e)
Sol. Marginalize-treat (a person, group, or concept) as insignificant or peripheral.

Q2. Suasion: Advertisements in magazines have a strong suasion for readers using vibrant photographs and strong wording.
(a) suspense
(b) surprise
(c) enticement
(d) engage
(e) endanger
Ans.(c)
Sol. Suasion- Suasion (noun): (persuasion as opposed to force or compulsion.)
Synonyms: cajolery, enticement, exhortation, wheedling,

Antonyms: discouragement, dissuasion.

Q3. Stigmatize: There is a stigma attached to AIDS that makes most people afraid of those who have the disease.
(a) defame
(b) stomata
(c) stickers
(d) emotions
(e) steam
Ans.(a)
Sol. Stigmatize- Stigmatize (verb): Describe or regard as worthy of disgrace or great disapproval.

Synonyms: Defame, Discredit, Condemn, Denounce

Antonyms: Exalt, Praise, Extol, Glorify, Revere, Aggrandize

Q4. Laudable:  Even though Gerald finished the marathon in last place, the fact he actually finished the race was a laudable accomplishment.
(a) loving
(b) loud
(c) audible
(d) lenient
(e) appreciable
Ans.(e)
Sol. Laudable-Laudable (adjective): (of an action, idea, or aim) deserving praise and commendation.

Synonyms: Appreciable, Admirable, Commendable, Praiseworthy

Antonyms: Disrespected, Unworthy, Blamable.

Q5. Poise :  Despite the chaos around her, the flight attendant remained poised and calm as she directed the passengers through the emergency exits
(a) poison
(b) prepare
(c) protect
(d) web
(e) describe
Ans.(b)
Sol. Poise-Poise (verb):  Be ready and prepared to do something.
Synonyms: Position Oneself, Ready Oneself, Prepare Oneself, Brace Oneself, Get Into Position, Gear Oneself Up

Antonyms: Be Discouraged, Be Reluctant

Q6. Dismantle: Opposition accuses the government of trying to dismantle the country's economy by demonetization.
(a) decorate
(b) matter
(c) demolish
(d) mantle
(e) disallow
Ans.(c)
Sol. Dismantle-Dismantle (verb): (to gradually cause (something) to come to an end /To destroy (something) in an orderly way)

Synonyms: Demolish, Destroy, Wreck, Decimate

Antonyms: Build, Construct, Create, Repair, Restore

Q7. Proscribe: The policies of the school district proscribe accessing social media websites on school computers.
(a) allow
(b) permit
(c) prescribe
(d) forbid
(e) propose
Ans.(d)
Sol. Proscribe- Proscribe (verb): (forbid, especially by law.)

Synonyms: forbid, prohibit, ban, bar, rule out, embargo, interdict, outlaw.

Antonyms: allow, permit.

Q8. Subjugation: In order to be a dictator, you must first subjugate your people by any means necessary.
(a) freedom
(b) servility
(c) gradually
(d) subscribe
(e) independence
Ans.(b)
Sol. Subjugation-Subjugation (noun): (the action of bringing someone or something under domination or control.)

Synonyms: serfdom, servility, helotry.

Antonyms: freedom, independence.

Q9. Abet: During the press conference, the president vowed severe consequences for any person or group who chose to abet the terrorists.
(a) Provoke
(b) discourage
(c) advance
(d) wait
(e) call
Ans.(a)
Sol. Abet- Abet (verb): (encourage or assist (someone) to do something wrong, in particular to commit a crime.) 
Synonyms: Provoke, Collaborate, Connive, Collude.

Antonyms: Halt, Discourage, Dissuade, Oppose.

Q10. Pretext : Under pretext of being a police officer, the gang member gained entry into the rival gang leader’s apartment.
(a) texture
(b) alibi
(c) clouds
(d) doubt
(e) course
Ans.(b)
Sol. Pretext (noun): (A reason given in justification of a course of action that is not the real reason.)
 Synonyms: Alibi, False Excuse, Ostensible Reason, Alleged Reason, Supposed Grounds

Q11. Yearn : Because my husband has been stationed overseas for a year, I yearn for him to come home.
(a) earn
(b) die
(c) desire
(d) dedicate
(e) excuse
Ans.(c)
Sol. Yearn (verb): (Have an intense feeling of longing for something)
Synonyms: Crave, Desire, Want, Want Badly, Wish, Have/Feel A Longing, Covet.

Antonyms: Hate, Despise, Dislike.

Q12.  Surfeit: The aid workers were not prepared for the surfeit of calls that came in after the hurricane.
(a) excess
(b) fair
(c) lack
(d) Scarcity
(e) Want
Ans.(a)
Sol.  Surfeit (noun): (An excessive amount of something.)
Synonyms: Excess, Surplus, Abundance, Oversupply, Superabundance, Superfluity, Glut.

Antonyms: Lack, Want, Need, Scarcity.

Q13. Jeopardize: Since I do not want to jeopardize my employment, I always complete my daily goals.
(a) engage
(b) threaten
(c) paradise
(d) enroll
(e) entertain
Ans.(b)
Sol. Jeopardize (verb): (Put (someone or something) into a situation in which there is a danger of loss, harm, or failure.)

Synonyms: Threaten, Endanger, Imperil, Menace, Put At Risk, Put In Danger\

Q14. Seminal :Steve Jobs’ inventions were seminal in the world of technology.
(a) common
(b) influential
(c) seem
(d) easy
(e) destroyed
Ans.(b)
Sol. Seminal (adjective): (Strongly influencing later developments.)

Synonyms: Influential, Formative, Important, Primary.

Q15. Benediction :  The signal was then given to us, and we all knelt to receive the benediction of Monseigneur.
(a) call
(b) condemnation
(c) interaction
(d) blessing
(e) criticism
Ans.(d)
Sol. Benediction (noun): (The advantage conferred by blessing; a mercy or benefit; an utterance of good wishes)
Synonyms: Invocation, Blessing, Beatitude

Current Affairs Questions for IBPS RRB PO and Clerk 2017: 30th October 2017

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Welcome to the world of Current Affairs 2017. With IBPS RRB PO and Clerk Mains round the corner, it should be your priority to cover every aspect of Current Affairs on a daily basis for IBPS RRB PO and Clerk Mains so that you can do well in the exam. These current affairs are based on current news. Let us see how many questions you attempt accurately.

Q1. Which among the following team has won the third consecutive Pro Kabaddi title for 2017?
(a) Gujarat Fortunegiants
(b) Puneri Paltan
(c) Patna Pirates
(d) Dabang Delhi
(e) Bengaluru Bulls

S1. Ans.(c)
Sol. Pardeep Narwal scored incredible 24 points to steer Patna Pirates to third consecutive Pro Kabaddi title. Pardeep, who had scored 76 points in three playoffs, helped Patna come from behind and thump Gujarat Fortunegiants 55-38 in the summit clash of Pro Kabaddi season 5.

Q2. Name the team that has scripted a dramatic turnaround in Kolkata to win the 2017 FIFA U17 World Cup for the very first time.
(a) Portugal
(b) England
(c) Ghana
(d) The Netherlands
(e) Spain

S2. Ans.(b)
Sol. England scripted a dramatic turnaround in Kolkata to win the 2017 FIFA U17 World Cup for the very first time after a 5-2 win over European U17 champions Spain. Spain appeared to throw in the towel after letting slip a commanding lead, and their woe was compounded by further strikes from Marc Guehi and Foden to round off a comprehensive victory.

Q3. Name the Indian shooter who has won silver in Double trap event in the ISSF World Cup Final, in New Delhi.
(a) Jitu Rai
(b) Heena Sidhu
(c) Amanpreet Singh
(d) Sangram Dahiya
(e) Omkar Nath

S3. Ans.(d)
Sol. Sangram Dahiya won a silver in the ISSF World Cup Final, in New Delhi. Double trap exponent Sangram clinched his first-ever senior medal in International Shooting Sports Federation tournament. He was taking part in the prestigious event for the first time.

Q4. The Union Cabinet has approved the fund of over ______________ for construction of permanent campuses of six new Indian Institute of Technology (IITs) across the country.
(a) Rs 7,000 crore
(b) Rs 7,800 crore
(c) Rs 5,003 crore
(d) Rs 5,600 crore
(e) Rs 6,200 crore

S4. Ans.(a)
Sol. The Union Cabinet has approved over Rs 7,000 crore for construction of permanent campuses of six new Indian Institute of Technology (IITs) across the country. Each of the permanent campuses to be established at Tirupati (Andhra Pradesh), Palakkad (Kerala), Dharwad (Karnataka), Jammu (Jammu and Kashmir), Bhilai (Chhattisgarh) and Goa will have a facility for housing 1,200 students from the academic year 2020-2021.

Q5. Name the country with which India has agreed to strengthen bilateral defence cooperation as a key Pillar of the strategic partnership between the two countries.
(a) Russia
(b) UK
(c) France
(d) USA
(e) Japan

S5. Ans.(c)
Sol. India and France have agreed to strengthen bilateral defence cooperation as a key Pillar of strategic partnership between the two countries. Defence minister Nirmala Sitharaman and French Minister for the Armed Forces, Ms. Florence Parly discussed a range of measures to expand military to military ties.

Q6. The government of which state has issued an order notifying Vrindavan and Barsana towns as “pavitra teeth sthals (sacred pilgrimage sites)”?
(a) Jharkhand
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Bihar
(d) Chhattisgarh
(e) Maharashtra

S6. Ans.(b)
Sol. The Uttar Pradesh government issued an order notifying Vrindavan and Barsana towns in Mathura district as “pavitra teerth sthals (sacred pilgrimage sites)”. No meat and liquor shops will be allowed in these towns anymore.

Q7. Name the Veteran actor who has received the Lifetime Achievement Award by the PHD Chamber of Commerce and Industry in New Delhi for his/her contribution in the field of cinema.
(a) Waheeda Rehman
(b) Shabana Azmi
(c) Smita Patil
(d) Sharmila Tagore
(e) Madhuri Dixit

S7. Ans.(d)
Sol. Veteran actor Sharmila Tagore has received the Lifetime Achievement Award. The 72-year-old actor was bestowed with the recognition by the PHD Chamber of Commerce and Industry in New Delhi for her contribution in the field of cinema.

Q8. Name the person who has been appointed as the next High Commissioner of India to the Republic of Zambia.
(a) N.J.Gangte
(b) Sangeeta Phogte
(c) Saurana Chawla
(d) Vimal Jha
(e) Tarun Saha

S8. Ans.(a)
Sol. N.J.Gangte has been appointed as the next High Commissioner of India to the Republic of Zambia.

Q9. What is the Capital of the Republic of Zambia?
(a) Baku
(b) Sudan
(c) Jakarta
(d) Lusaka
(e) Moscow

S9. Ans.(d)
Sol. Lusaka is the Capital of the Republic of Zambia. Edgar Lungu is the president of the Republic of Zambia.

Q10. Which among the following state Government has announced the signing of an MoU with Microsoft Corporation India Private Limited with an intention to empower smallholder farmers with technology-oriented solutions that will help them increase income?
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Odisha
(c) Karnataka
(d) Kerala
(e) Assam

S10. Ans.(c)
Sol. The Karnataka Government announced the signing of an MoU with Microsoft Corporation India Private Limited with an intention to empower smallholder farmers with technology-oriented solutions that will help them increase income.

Banking Awareness Questions for IBPS RRBs PO and Clerk Mains 2017

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Just a few days are left for IBPS RRB Mains It is time to pace up your preparation of Banking Awareness for IBPS RRB PO and Clerk Mains. These questions related to Banking Awareness will also help you in preparing for other upcoming banking recruitment examination.

Q1. __________ An asset, including a leased asset, becomes non­ performing when it ceases to generate income for the bank.
(a) NPA
(b) KCC
(c) NPV
(d) GDP
(e) GNP

S1. Ans.(a)
Sol. Non ­performing Assets (NPA) is an asset, including a leased asset, becomes non­ performing when it ceases to generate income for the bank.

Q2. NPA stands for-
(a) National ­performing Assets
(b) New ­performing Assets
(c) Non ­production Assets
(d) Non ­performing Assembly
(e) Non ­performing Assets

S2. Ans.(e)
Sol. NPA stands for Non ­performing Assets.

Q3. MUDRA is a financial institution has been set up by Government of India for development and refinancing micro-units’ enterprises. What is the meaning of "A" in MUDRA?
(a) Agency
(b) Association
(c) Assembly
(d) Agent
(e) Alert

S3. Ans.(a)
Sol. MUDRA, which stands for Micro Units Development & Refinance Agency Ltd, is a financial institution being set up by Government of India for development and refinancing micro units’ enterprises.

Q4. MUDRA stands for-
(a) Micro Units Development & Refinance Agent
(b) Midium Units Development & Refinance Association
(c) Micro Units Department & Refinance Agency
(d) Micro Units Development & Refinance Agency
(e) Micro Unique Development & Refinance Assembly

S4. Ans.(d)
Sol. MUDRA, which stands for Micro Units Development & Refinance Agency Ltd, is a financial institution being set up by Government of India for development and refinancing micro units’ enterprises. It was announced by the Hon’ble Finance Minister while presenting the Union Budget for FY 2016. The purpose of MUDRA is to provide funding to the non-corporate small business sector through various Last Mile Financial Institutions like Banks, NBFCs and MFIs.

Q5. India was one of the first in Asia to recognize the effectiveness of the EPZ model in promoting exports. EPZ stands for-
(a) Export Point Zone
(b) External Processing Zone
(c) Export Production Zone
(d) Export Processing Zone
(e) Export Processing Zonal

S5. Ans.(d)
Sol. India was one of the first in Asia to recognize the effectiveness of the Export Processing Zone (EPZ) model in promoting exports, with Asia's first EPZ set up in Kandla, Gujarat in 1965.

Q6. The concept of insuring deposits kept with banks received attention for the first time in the year ___________ after the banking crises in Bengal.
(a) 1941
(b) 1933
(c) 1961
(d) 1948
(e) 1919

S6. Ans.(d)
Sol. The concept of insuring deposits kept with banks received attention for the first time in the year 1948 after the banking crises in Bengal. The question came up for reconsideration in the year 1949, but it was decided to hold it in abeyance till the Reserve Bank of India ensured adequate arrangements for inspection of banks. Subsequently, in the year 1950, the Rural Banking Enquiry Committee also supported the concept.

Q7. The Deposit Insurance Corporation (DIC) Bill was introduced in the Parliament on August 21, 1961. After it was passed by the Parliament, the Bill got the assent of the President on December 7, 1961, and the Deposit Insurance Act, 1961 came into force on January 01st-
(a) 1962
(b) 1975
(c) 1956
(d) 1949
(e) 1935

S7. Ans.(a)
Sol. The Deposit Insurance Corporation (DIC) Bill was introduced in the Parliament on August 21, 1961. After it was passed by the Parliament, the Bill got the assent of the President on December 7, 1961 and the Deposit Insurance Act, 1961 came into force on January 1, 1962. The Deposit Insurance Scheme was initially extended to functioning commercial banks only. This included the State Bank of India and its subsidiaries, other commercial banks and the branches of the foreign banks operating in India.

Q8. The Reserve Bank of India was promoted a public limited company on January 14th 1971, named the CGCI. What was the meaning of first "C" in CGCI?
(a) Common
(b) Conclusion
(c) Corporation
(d) Concept
(e) Credit

S8. Ans.(e)
Sol. The Reserve Bank of India also promoted a public limited company on January 14, 1971, named the Credit Guarantee Corporation of India Ltd. (CGCI). The main thrust of the Credit Guarantee Schemes, introduced by the Credit Guarantee Corporation of India Ltd., was aimed at encouraging the commercial banks to cater to the credit needs of the hitherto neglected sectors, particularly the weaker sections of the society engaged in non-industrial activities, by providing guarantee cover to the loans and advances granted by the credit institutions to small and needy borrowers covered under the priority sector.

Q9. The DIC Bill was introduced in the Parliament on August 21st, 1961. What is the meaning of "D" in DIC?
(a) Distance
(b) Development
(c) Deposit
(d) Demand
(e) None of the given options is true

S9. Ans.(c)
Sol. The Deposit Insurance Corporation (DIC) Bill was introduced in the Parliament on August 21, 1961. After it was passed by the Parliament, the Bill got the assent of the President on December 7, 1961 and the Deposit Insurance Act, 1961 came into force on January 1, 1962.

Q10. DICGC stands for-
(a) Deposit Investment and Credit Guarantee Corporation
(b) Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation
(c) Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Company
(d) Demand Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation
(e) Deposit Instalment and Credit Guarantee Corporation

S10. Ans.(b)
Sol. DICGC stands for Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation.

Q11. ______________ is basically charged when a person uses a credit card to obtain cash.
(a) Early Repayment Charge
(b) Redemption Fee
(c) Transaction Fee
(d) Cash Advance Fee
(e) None of the given options is true

S11. Ans.(d)
Sol. A cash advance fee is a charge that a credit card issuer charges a customer for accessing the cash credit line on his or her account, either through an ATM, convenience check or at a bank’s teller window.

Q12. Which is an interest-free period that is to be given by a creditor to the debtor?
(a) Fixed Period
(b) Preset Period
(c) Grace Period
(d) All of the Above
(e) None of the given options is true

S12. Ans.(c)
Sol. The grace period is the provision in most loan and insurance contracts which allows payment to be received for a certain period of time after the actual due date. During this period no late fees will be charged, and the late payment will not result in default or cancellation of the loan.

Q13. ________ is a cheque rather an amount of cheque, which is above the balance available in the account of the payer.
(a) Travellers cheque
(b) Multicity Cheque
(c) Mutilated Cheque
(d) Over Draft
(e) Bad Debts

S13. Ans.(d)
Sol. An overdraft is an extension of credit from a lending institution when an account reaches zero. An overdraft allows the individual to continue withdrawing money even if the account has no funds in it.

Q14. A cheque for a fixed amount that may be cashed or used in payment abroad after endorsement by the holder’s signature is known as ___________
(a) Travellers cheque
(b) Multicity Cheque
(c) Mutilated Cheque
(d) Crossed Cheque
(e) None of the given options is true

S14. Ans.(a)
Sol. Traveller’s cheque is a medium of exchange that can be used in place of hard currency. Traveller’s cheques are often used by individuals travelling on vacation to foreign countries.

Q15. Which of the following is not a measure of the Risk Management in Banks?
(a) CRR
(b) RTGS
(c) SLR
(d) Deposit Insurance
(e) None of the given options is true

S15. Ans.(b)
Sol. Cash reserve Ratio (CRR) is the amount of funds that the banks have to keep with the RBI. Statutory liquidity ratio (SLR) is the Indian government term for reserve requirement that the commercial banks in India require to maintain in the form of gold, government approved securities before providing credit to the customers. Deposit insurance is mandatory, and pays claims from a pool of funds to which every depository institution regularly contributes.


Must Do Current Affairs Questions for IBPS PO and IBPS RRB Mains 2017

By With No comments:
 Dear Readers,

It is time to pace up your preparation with Current Affairs in 2017 for the upcoming bank and insurance exams. Current Affairs plays an important part if you want a job in the government sector as you must be aware of important news not only for the written examination but also for the Interview Phase. These G.K current affair questions and answers will also help you in preparing for IBPS PO, IBPS RRB Officer Scale-I, RRB Office Assistant Mains recruitment examination.

Q1. According to the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) announcement, Masala bonds will be now treated as ECB from October 2017 thereby freeing up more investments by FPIs. What does ECB stands for?
Answer: External Commercial Borrowings

Q2. Name the player who has been recommended for the prestigious Padma Bhushan, country’s third highest civilian award by the Sports Ministry.
Answer: P.V. Sindhu

Q3. Name the Eminent scientist of India who has recently become the first Asian to be chosen for the prestigious Von Hippel Award for his immense contribution in materials research.
Answer: Prof. C.N.R Rao

Q4. According to the Forbes Real-Time Billionaires List, name the business person who has recently become Asia’s richest man.
Answer: Hui Ka Yan

Q5. On which country, the International Cricket Council (ICC) has recently launched an anti-corruption investigation?
Answer: Sri Lanka

Q6. For which lender, Artificial intelligence banking platform Payjo has launched an AI-powered chat assistant to addresses customer enquiries?
Answer: State Bank of India

Q7. Name the Minister of Tribal Affairs who has recently inaugurated the National Workshop organized by TRIFED on “Minimum Support Price (MSP) for Minor Forest Produces (MFP) scheme.
Answer: Jual Oram

Q8.  Asian champion Govindan Lakshmanan has recently won in the men’s 5000-metre race in the 57th National Open Athletics Championships in ____________.
Answer: Chennai

Q9. Name the state government that has recently launched 'Vision-2025' project aimed at evolving a draft policy for development of the state in next seven years by seeking the opinion of the public.
Answer: Karnataka

Q10. Asian Development Bank (ADB) has recently downgraded India’s growth projection to _____________ for the current fiscal.
Answer: 7.0%

Q11. Which is the world’s third-biggest energy company, according to Platts Top 250 Global Energy Company Rankings?
Answer: Reliance Industries Ltd

Q12. The Union Home Minister Shri Rajnath Singh launched the 'PENCIL Portal' at the National Conference on Child Labour organised by the Ministry of Labour and Employment. PENCIL is abbreviated as _______________________.
Answer: Platform for Effective Enforcement for No Child Labour

Q13. Name the country that has recently swore in Joao Lourenco as the country's President, making him the first new President of the country in 38 years.
Answer: Angola

Q14. The Central Industrial Security Force (CISF) security at which airport has been recognized as the best service in this domain by a global quality rating agency?
Answer: Mumbai Airport

Q15. What was the Ranking of India in the global competitiveness ranking of 137 countries by the World Economic Forum (WEF)?
Answer: 40th


Must Do Current Affairs Questions for IBPS PO and IBPS RRB Mains 2017

By With No comments:
 Dear Readers,

It is time to pace up your preparation with Current Affairs in 2017 for the upcoming bank and insurance exams. Current Affairs plays an important part if you want a job in the government sector as you must be aware of important news not only for the written examination but also for the Interview Phase. These G.K current affair questions and answers will also help you in preparing for IBPS PO, IBPS RRB Officer Scale-I, RRB Office Assistant Mains recruitment examination.

Q1. According to the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) announcement, Masala bonds will be now treated as ECB from October 2017 thereby freeing up more investments by FPIs. What does ECB stands for?
Answer: External Commercial Borrowings

Q2. Name the player who has been recommended for the prestigious Padma Bhushan, country’s third highest civilian award by the Sports Ministry.
Answer: P.V. Sindhu

Q3. Name the Eminent scientist of India who has recently become the first Asian to be chosen for the prestigious Von Hippel Award for his immense contribution in materials research.
Answer: Prof. C.N.R Rao

Q4. According to the Forbes Real-Time Billionaires List, name the business person who has recently become Asia’s richest man.
Answer: Hui Ka Yan

Q5. On which country, the International Cricket Council (ICC) has recently launched an anti-corruption investigation?
Answer: Sri Lanka

Q6. For which lender, Artificial intelligence banking platform Payjo has launched an AI-powered chat assistant to addresses customer enquiries?
Answer: State Bank of India

Q7. Name the Minister of Tribal Affairs who has recently inaugurated the National Workshop organized by TRIFED on “Minimum Support Price (MSP) for Minor Forest Produces (MFP) scheme.
Answer: Jual Oram

Q8.  Asian champion Govindan Lakshmanan has recently won in the men’s 5000-metre race in the 57th National Open Athletics Championships in ____________.
Answer: Chennai

Q9. Name the state government that has recently launched 'Vision-2025' project aimed at evolving a draft policy for development of the state in next seven years by seeking the opinion of the public.
Answer: Karnataka

Q10. Asian Development Bank (ADB) has recently downgraded India’s growth projection to _____________ for the current fiscal.
Answer: 7.0%

Q11. Which is the world’s third-biggest energy company, according to Platts Top 250 Global Energy Company Rankings?
Answer: Reliance Industries Ltd

Q12. The Union Home Minister Shri Rajnath Singh launched the 'PENCIL Portal' at the National Conference on Child Labour organised by the Ministry of Labour and Employment. PENCIL is abbreviated as _______________________.
Answer: Platform for Effective Enforcement for No Child Labour

Q13. Name the country that has recently swore in Joao Lourenco as the country's President, making him the first new President of the country in 38 years.
Answer: Angola

Q14. The Central Industrial Security Force (CISF) security at which airport has been recognized as the best service in this domain by a global quality rating agency?
Answer: Mumbai Airport

Q15. What was the Ranking of India in the global competitiveness ranking of 137 countries by the World Economic Forum (WEF)?
Answer: 40th


Sunday, October 29, 2017

Computer Aptitude Questions for IBPS PO Mains 2017

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IBPS has introduced Computer Aptitude this year (clubbed with Reasoning Section) in the Mains Examination of Probationary Officer Recruitment. Aspirants preparing for SBI must be familiar with Computer Aptitude Section. You must prepare basics of Computer Knowledge for this section to score well. The only difference between Computer Aptitude and Computer Awareness/Knowledge is the practical approach of questions asked in Computer Aptitude. Practice with these 15 questions of Computer Aptitude for IBPS PO Mains 2017 Exam.

Q1. Pokémon Go app, an immensely popular game which allowed people to wander around their hometowns and score points by interacting with characters, within the confines of a game, then going to real-life places to make progress in virtual environments. Which of the following is related technology?
(a) Artificial Intelligence
(b) Virtual Reality
(c) Augmented Reality
(d) Sleeker
(e) None of these
Ans.(c)
Sol. Augmented reality is a technology that superimposes a computer-generated image on a user's view of the real world.

Q2. Which type of system can learn and adjust to new circumstances by themselves?
(a) Database management system
(b) Expert systems
(c) Geographical systems
(d) Neural networks
(e) File based systems
Ans.(d)
Sol. Neural networks can learn and adjust to new circumstances by themselves.

Q3. In 2014, Apple decided to invent a programming language. What is the name of that programming language?
(a) Cyanogen
(b) Ruby
(c) Swift
(d) Oxygen
(e) None of these
Ans.(c)
Sol. Swift is a general-purpose, multi-paradigm, compiled programming language developed by Apple Inc.

Q4. Which among the following is the appropriate term to find specific information on a website?
(a) Analytical research
(b) Drill down
(c) MDX querying
(d) Checking its Homepage.
(e) Scroll down
Ans.(b)
Sol. In information technology to drill down means to move from one place to another, information to detailed data by focusing in on something.

Q5. Verizon Communications on July 2016, announced plans to acquire Yahoo for $4.8 billion in cash. Yahoo (www.yahoo.com) is a _________.
(a) Website for Consumers
(b) Web Portal
(c) Organization that allocates web addresses
(d) E-mail service
(e) E-commerce website
Ans.(b)
Sol. A Web portal is a specially designed website that often serves as the single point of access for information.
The first Web portals were online services, such as AOL, that provided access to the Web, but by now most of the traditional search engines have transformed themselves into Web portals to attract and keep a larger audience.

Q6. A __________’s main purpose is to prohibit unauthorized access to your computer via the Internet.
(a) Popup blocker
(b) Firewall
(c) Spyware blocker
(d) Spam assassin
(e) Restore file
Ans.(b)
Sol. A firewall acts as a barrier between a trusted network and an untrusted network. A firewall controls access to the resources of a network through a positive control model. This means that the only traffic allowed onto the network is defined in the firewall policy; all other traffic is denied.
Firewalls can be implemented in both hardware and software, or a combination of both.

Q7. Word is a word processor developed by Microsoft. In MS Word spelling check is a feature available in which tab?
(a) Page Layout
(b) Home
(c) Insert
(d) Review
(e) References
Ans.(d)



Q8. ____________ is the automatic addition of names and addresses from a database to letters and envelopes in order to facilitate sending mail especially advertising, to many addresses.
(a) mail merge
(b) bcc
(c) cc
(d) balloons
(e) New
Ans.(a)
Sol. Mail merge is used to create multiple documents at once. These documents have identical layout, formatting, text, and graphics. Only specific sections of each document vary and are personalised.

Q9. =Sum (S3 : S10) is an example of a
(a) function
(b) formula
(c) cell address
(d) value
(e) None of these
Ans. (b)
Sol. It is a formula to get sum of the data from cell number S3 to S10.

Q10. The first electronic digital computer contained _________?
(a) Electronic valves
(b) Neural Networks
(c) Fuzzy Logic
(d) Semiconductor memory
(e) None of these
Ans.(a)
Sol. The first electronic digital computer contained electronic valves.

Q11. What is the blinking symbol on the screen that shows where the next character will appear?
(a) Cursor
(b) Delete key
(c) Arrow key
(d) Return key
(e) None of these
Ans.(a)
Sol. In computer user interfaces, a cursor is an indicator used to show the current position for user interaction on a computer monitor or other display device that will respond to input from a text input or pointing device.

Q12. The dual-port version of DRAM formerly used in graphics adaptors is :
(a) FPM DRAM
(b) EDORAM
(c) VRAM
(d) DDRSDRAM
(e) None of these
Ans.(c)
Sol. Video RAM, or VRAM, is a dual-ported variant of dynamic RAM (DRAM), which was once commonly used to store the frame buffer in some graphics adapters.

Q13. Which of the following is a term related with printer?
(a) DVD
(b) Cartridge
(c) Hard-disk
(d) Keyboard
(e) None of these
Ans.(b)
Sol. An ink cartridge or inkjet cartridge is a component of an inkjet printer that contains the ink that is deposited onto paper during printing.

Q14. To justify the selected text, the shortcut key is _______.
(a) Ctrl+1
(b) Ctrl+J
(c) Ctrl+U
(d) Ctrl+Alt+K
(e) None of these
Ans.(b)
Sol. Ctrl+J is used to justify the selected text.

Q15. Trackball is an example of a/an ______.
(a) Programming device
(b) Pointing device
(c) Output device
(d) Software device
(e) Printing device
Ans.(b)
Sol. Trackball is an example of a pointing device (mouse).

Must Do Current Affairs Questions for IBPS PO and IBPS RRB Mains 2017

By With No comments:
It is time to pace up your preparation with Current Affairs in 2017 for the upcoming bank and insurance exams. Current Affairs plays an important part if you want a job in the government sector as you must be aware of important news not only for the written examination but also for the Interview Phase. These G.K current affair questions and answers will also help you in preparing for IBPS PO, IBPS RRB Officer Scale-I, RRB Office Assistant Mains recruitment examination.

Q1. Name the player who has become the first Indian to be picked as the International Boxing Association’s (AIBA) representative for the International Olympic Committee (IOC) Athletes’ Forum.
Answer: M C Mary Kom


Q2. Name the newly appointed chancellor of Germany.
Answer: Angela Merkel

Q3. The book titled "The Shershah of Kargil", written by Deepak Surana has been unveiled recently. It is the biography of ___________________.
Answer: Captain Vikram Batra

Q4. Former home secretary Rajiv Mehrishi recently took over as the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India. He has succeeded ____________.
Answer: Shashi Kant Sharma

Q5. Name the actor who was awarded the GQ Actor of the Year Award, in Mumbai.
Answer: Rajkummar Rao

Q6. The 7th ASEM (Asia–Europe Meeting) Economic Ministers’ Meeting was held recently in ______________.
Answer: South Korea

Q7. Prime Minister Narendra Modi has recently launched Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana or ‘Saubhagya’, to supply 24/7 electricity supply to poor households. What is the total outlay for the scheme?
Answer: Rs 16,320 crore

Q8.  PM Narendra Modi has recently reconstituted the Economic Advisory Council (EAC) to guide him on economic issues. The Council will be headed by _______________.
Answer: Bibek Debroy

Q9. Which state Government has recently launched ‘Sampurna (Sishu Abond Matru Mrityuhara Purna Nirakaran Abhijan) Yojna’ scheme for pregnant women?
Answer: Odisha

Q10. State Bank of India lowered the Minimum Average Monthly Balance (MAB) requirement in a savings account to ____________ from Rs 5,000.
Answer: Rs 3,000

Q11. Eman Ahmed who was once the world’s heaviest woman has passed away recently. She was from which country?
Answer: Egypt

Q12. The Kandla Port has been recently renamed as ______________.
Answer: Deendayal Port

Q13. Name the young boy from Srinagar who has recently become the brand ambassador for Swachhata Hi Seva campaign.
Answer: Bilal Dar

Q14. In which country, India has launched "Incredible India!" campaign to woo travellers and make them aware of magnificent holiday options in the country?
Answer: Egypt

Q15. The theme for World Tourism Day 2017 is ______________.
Answer: Sustainable Tourism – a Tool for Development

IBPS PO Prelims Study Plan | Practice New Pattern Syllabus for IBPS PO 2017

By With No comments:
Banking Exams are putting up a tough fight for all aspirants and now IBPS PO Recruitment is the best chance for all Banking Aspirants to achieve their dream and become a Probationary Officer in Public Sector Banks. IBPS PO recruitment this year has brought 3562 vacancies and has also introduced some major changes in its Mains Exam pattern making it similar to SBI PO Mains exam pattern. Now you can also expect the difficulty level of IBPS Exam to change as well.  This calls for a proper preparation strategy for IBPS PO 2017 Recruitment. Are you ready with a plan?

Bankersadda and Adda247 is always there to help you in identifying the right approach to crack govt. exams and for IBPS PO at first you need to understand the changes in all the sections and types of questions. We have provided you with a topic wise and day wise study plan for IBPS RRB Exam which covers entire syllabus for Reasoning and Quantitative Aptitude. You must also follow that and for IBPS PO we’ll be giving you daily quizzes focused on the new pattern and the changes that have taken place this year in SBI Recruitment exams because you can expect those types of questions in IBPS PO Exams as well.

Keep on reading and get a clear idea of what all new pattern questions are there in each section- English, Reasoning and Quantitative Aptitude that you must prepare thoroughly for IBPS PO 2017.

IBPS PO PRELIMS 2017 STUDY PLAN


IBPS PO PRELIMS 2017 STUDY PLAN


WeekEnglish LanguageReasoningQuantitative Aptitude
 1
Jumbled Sentences (Type-1, 3)
Fillers (Type-1,2)
Cloze Test
Errors Type- 3
Inequality
Blood Relation
Direction Sense
Order & Ranking
Puzzles & Seating Arrangement
Syllogism Old Pattern
Simplification & Approximation
Number Series (Missing and Wrong)
Quadratic Equation
Word Problem
 2
Errors (Type-1,3,4)
Jumbled Sentences (Type-2,3)
Fillers (Type-2)
Phrase & Connectors (Type-1)
Synonyms & Antonyms/ Word Usage
Puzzles & Seating Arrangement
Order & Ranking
Alpha-Numeric-Symbol Series
Alphabet
Coding-Decoding
Logical Reasoning
Word Problem
Inequality
Number Series
Tabular DI
Line Graph DI
 3
Reading Comprehension
Fillers (Type-1, 2)
Errors (Type-2,3,4)
Phrase & Connectors (Type-2,3)
Cloze Test
Paragraph Related Questions
Puzzle & Seating Arrangement
Syllogism Old & New Pattern
Inequality
Data Sufficiency
Machine I/O (via. images- new pattern)
Cummuculative DI
Pie Chart (New Pattern) DI
Line Graph DI
Word Problem
Tabular DI
Inequality
 4
Reading Comprehension
Errors (Type- 2,3,4)
Phrase and Connectors (Type-1,2,3,4)
Paragraph Inference
Paragraph Fillers, Completion and Resatement
Puzzles & Seating Arrangement
Blood Relation
Inequality
Syllogism
Machine I/O (old and new pattern)
Data Sufficiency
Logical Reasoning
Word Problem
Simplification & Approximation
Missing DI
Caselet DI
Radar DI
Pie Chart (Old and New Pattern) DI
Number Series
 5Practice SetPractice SetPractice Set

Quantitative Aptitude Section

The first and most basic tip to help you clear quantitative aptitude section’s cut off is that you should work on your calculation speed. If you want to score in Maths you know you must calculate faster. In fact, this section is most scoring if you have practiced enough as you cannot be sure of your answers in language section and you might trip while solving puzzles but whereas questions of arithmetic are concerned you can be sure if you can solve it, if your answer is right or not.

1. Simplification & Approximation

Simplification
Direction: Simplify the given question and identify what value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the questions given below?
Q. 3.5% of 40 + 3.5% of 80 = ?% of 10
(a) 49
(b) 56
(c) 64
(d) 66
(e) 42

Approximation (IBPS PO Pre 2016, SBI PO Pre 2017, IBPS PO Mains 2016)
Direction: What approximate value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the questions given below?
Q. 23.001 × 18.999 × 7.998 = ?
(a) 4200
(b) 3000
(c) 3500
(d) 4000
(e) 2500

2. Number Series

Missing Number Series (SBI PO Prelims 2017, IBPS Clerk Mains 2016, IBPS PO Prelims 2016)

Direction: What will come in place of the question mark (?) in each of the following series?
Q. 14, 8, 9, 14.5, 30, ?
(a) 75
(b) 76
(c) 60
(d) 65
(e) None of these

Wrong Number Series (IBPS PO Mains 2016)

Direction: Find the wrong term in the following series.
Q. 33, 39, 56, 85, 127, 185, 254
(a) 39
(b) 254
(c) 185
(d) 85
(e) 56

3. Inequality

Old Pattern Quadratic Equation (IBPS PO Prelims 2016)

Direction: Two equations (I) and (II) are given. You have to solve both the equations and give answer
Q. I. 3x2 – 22x +7 = 0
II. y2 – 15y + 56 = 0
(a) if x > y
(b) if x ≥ y
(c) if x < y
(d) if x ≤ y
(e) if x = y or relationship between x and y cannot be established

New Pattern Inequality (SBI PO Mains 2017 and IBPS PO Mains 2016)

Q. There are 63 cards in a box numbered from 1 to 63. Every card is numbered with only 1 number.
Quantity I: Probability of picking up a card whose digits, if interchanged, result in a number which is 36 more than the number picked up.
Quantity II: Probability of picking up a card, the number printed on which is a multiple of 8 but not that of 16.
(a) Quantity I > Quantity II
(b) Quantity I < Quantity II
(c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
(d) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
(e) Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation

4. Data Interpretation

Data Interpretation is a major part of Quantitative Aptitude section for any banking exam.
Types of DI:

1. Pie Charts
2. Line Graph
3. Bar Graphs
4. Tabular
5. Radar DI
6. Caselet DI
7. Missing DI

Tabular- IBPS PO Prelims 2016, SBI PO Prelims 2017

 Direction:  Study the following table and answer the questions that follow.


Q. What is the average invalid votes for village A for the given years(approximate)?
(a)400
(b)425
(c)450
(d)375
(e)350

Line Graph - IBPS PO Prelims 2016, IBPS PO Mains 2016, SBI PO Mains 2017, SBI PO Prelims 2017

Direction: Study the following table and answer the questions that follow. Given line graph shows the number of students appeared from state A and state B in an examination.


Q. There are 81 liters pure milk in a container. One-third of milk is replaced by water in the container. Again one-third of mixture is extracted and equal amount of water is added. What is the ratio of milk to water in the new mixture?
(a) 1 : 2
(b) 1 : 1
(c) 2 : 1
(d) 4 : 5
(e) None of these

Pie Chart - IBPS PO Mains 2016

Direction: There are five shops P, Q, R, S and T and they sell two different items - item A and item B. Following piechart shows the total no. of items sold by different shops in a particular month.


Q. Total number of items sold by shop P is equal to 36% of the total items purchased by shop P, then what is total number of unsold items of shop P ?
(a) 320
(b) 160
(c) 140
(d) 360
(e) None of these

New Pattern (SBI PO Mains 2017)
Direction:Study the data given below and answer the following questions. The pie charts shown below shows the distance covered by a boat moving upstream and downstream in different days of a week. And the table shows the speed of stream in km/hr. in different days of a week.





Q. If the time taken by boat to travel upstream on Thursday is equal to the time taken by it to travel downstream on Monday and the speed of boat in still water on Monday is 16 kmph then find the speed of boat in still water on Thursday?
(a) 16.2 kmph
(b) 17.2 kmph
(c) 15.4 kmph
(d) 12.5 kmph
(e) None of these

Missing DI SBI PO Mains 2017

Direction: There are five shop owners A, B, C, D and E. They are selling five different items given in the table. In the table, Discount (as a percentage) is given on mark price of these five products by different sellers. Study the table and answer the following questions:

Note:
1. Some values are missing. You have to calculate these values as per data given in the questions.
2. Mark price of a particular item is same for all of the shop owners.

Q. If the profit percentage of seller A after selling item II is s% and that of seller C for the same item is (2s - 4)% and the ratio of cost price of item II by seller A and seller C is 17 : 21 then find the value of s ?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
(e) none of these

5. Arithmetic Questions (Word Problem)
For word problems, you need to prepare and practice the arithmetic portion of quant. This part may include various chapter – Profit and Loss, Average, Ratio and Proportion, Speed Distance & Time, Time and Work, Probability, Pipes and Cistern, Permutation and Combination, Compound Interest and Simple Interest. The best possible way to tackle these is practice and attempt questions of those topics you are confident and comfortable in. Try not to spend more than 2 minutes on a word problem. These can kill your time so you must be strict with your time management.

English Language Section


The difficulty level of this section seems ever increasing with every recruitment exam to aspirants, but don’t worry with correct practice you can get through this section. Now-a-days the approach is more towards practical usage so always stay prepared for the unexpected. After all English is a language and essentially there are two most important aspects of a language its syntax and semantics. If you improve and work on your vocabulary, grammar knowledge, and comprehension skills you can easily deal with any new pattern question.

1. Reading Comprehension

The pattern of RC is not so drastically changed. This year in SBI PO Mains exam they've just written Paragraph1, Pragraph2, etc before each para of the RC and each RC had a set of 5 question with no question based on vocabulary. One new question of paragraph connector was introduced, for example: Which of the following statements can follow paragraph 4 to form a connection with paragraph 5?

To get the new type RC: SBI PO Mains Memory Based Question Paper (English Language)

Study Economy, Banking, Finance based Reading Comprehension for IBPS PO 2017.

2. Error Detection

Old Pattern: Type 1 Conventional question of Error detection

Direction: Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it.
Q. The blind’s life (a)/ is really very miserable (b)/ because they can’t see (c)/ what happens around
them. (d)/ No Error. (e)

New Pattern

Type 2 (SBI PO Mains 2017):
The following question consists of a sentence which is divided into three parts which contain grammatical errors in one or more than one part of the sentence. If there is an error in any part of the sentence, find the correct alternatives to replace those parts from the three options given below each question to make the sentence grammatically correct. If there is an error in any part of the sentence and none of the alternatives is correct to replace that part, then choose (d) i.e. None of the (I), (II) and (III) as your answer. If the given sentence is grammatically correct or does not require any correction, choose (e) i.e. No correction required as your answer.

Q. The announcement by the Saudi-led coalition to sever (I)/ diplomatic ties with Qatar marks the culmination of a year-long (II)/ dispute over few Gulf Arab states and Qatar. (III)
(I) The announcement by the Saudi-led coalition severing
(II) diplomatic tie with Qatar marked a year-long culmination
(III) dispute between some Gulf Arab states and Qatar
(a) Only (I)
(b) Only (III)
(c) Both (I) and (III)
(d) None of the (I), (II) and (III)
(e) No correction required

Type 3  (IBPS Clerk Mains 2016)
Read each of the following four sentences to find out whether there is any grammatical mistake/ error in it. Choose the sentence with no grammatical error as the correct answer. If all of the given sentences are grammatically incorrect, mark (e) as an answer.

Q. (a) John Wanamaker, founder of the stores that bear his name, once confessed, learnt 30 year ago that it is foolish to scold.
(b) Whether rich or poor, American or Indian, we all have the same emotions deep with us.
(c) This research indicate that we can no longer avoid significant warning during this century.
(d) Every modern society depends on the trust in the skills and ethics of ƒvariety of institutions such as schools and colleges, hospital and markets.
(e) None of these

Type 4 (IBPS PO Mains 2016)
Please select the most appropriate option, out of the five options given for each of the following sentences, which, in your view, should be grammatically and structurally correct. Please note that the meaning & context of the sentence must not change.

Q. (a) Although I already knew the answer and he invited me to visit him often, since I just have seen her in the square, I was never determined to yield this point.
(b) Although I have already known the answer and he invited me to visit him often but since I just have seen her in the square, I was not determined to yield this point.
(c) Although I knew the answer already, and he has often invited me to visit him, since I just have seen her in the square, I am never determined to yield this point.
(d) Although I already know the answer and he often invited me to visit him, since I have just seen her in the square, I am determined never to yield this point.
(e) None is true. 

3. Jumbled Sentences

Jumbled Sentences or Jumbled Paragraph can also be scoring when the examination is filled with changed pattern. The only way to master the art to tackle questions of this genre is by practicing them more and more and by improving your reading ability and deduction skills.

Old Pattern: Type 1 Conventional Type (IBPS Clerk Mains 2016)
Sentences are given in each question, when properly sequenced form coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labeled with letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences amongst the five choices given to construct a paragraph.

Q. (a) Some of the worst cancers aren’t detected by screening.
(b) The only way to be sure is to look at the results of randomized trials comparing cancer deaths in screened and unscreened people.
(c) So how can we be confident that getting screening test regularly is good idea?
(d) Even when screening “works” in such trials, the size of the benefit observed is surprisingly low: Generally, regular screening reduces fatalities from various cancers between 15 percent and 25 percent.
(e) They appear suddenly, between regular screenings, and are difficult to treat because they are so aggressive.
(a) DBAEC
(b) AECBD
(c) ADBEC
(d) ACBED
(e) ACBDE

New Pattern

Type 2 (SBI PO Mains 2017)
Q. If Sentence (C), “Presidential contests in India are usually tame and predictable, and 2017 does not promise to be any different” is the first sentence, what is the order of other sentences after rearrangement?

(A) Prime Minister Indira Gandhi called for a “conscience vote” just before the election, and a sizeable number of Congress parliamentarians and legislators voted against the “official” candidate, Reddy, in favour of Giri.
(B) The Bharatiya Janata Party, with its regular allies and new-found friends, should be able to see any non-controversial candidate through.
(C) Presidential contests in India are usually tame and predictable, and 2017 does not promise to be any different.
(D) To date, the election of V.V. Giri over Neelam Sanjiva Reddy in 1969 remains the only notable exception to the long list of humdrum presidential elections.
(E) Before and after that, however, the favourites have carried the day, with opposition-sponsored candidates putting up no more than a symbolic fight to prove no more than a political point.
(F) At present, the numbers are stacked against the opposition for the July 17 election.

(a) AEFBD
(b) FBADE
(c) DAEFB
(d) AFDBE
(e) DBFEA

Type 3 (IBPS PO Mains 2016)
Five statements are given below, labelled a, b, c, d and e. Among these, four statements are in logical order and form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the option that does not fit into the theme of the passage.

Q.(a) The reference was to China, a country that has been courting Pakistan for several years through a number of means including assistance in its nuclear programme.
(b) After the Uri attacks, Pakistan’s special Kashmir envoy Mushahid Hussain Syed declared that the US was a waning power, suggesting that Pakistan was seeking out other allies.
(c) The most important concern relates to the possible conflict in Pakistan between votaries of economic development and supporters of militancy.
(d) This corridor—which includes road, rail and port infrastructure—is expected to allow China to avoid the vulnerable Indian Ocean route currently used to transport oil from the Gulf.
(e) Of late, there has been much talk of the China-Pakistan Economic Corridor (CPEC) that stretches from the autonomous region of Xinjiang to the Gwadar port.

4. Cloze Test

Cloze Test is a topic that you can expect in preliminary examination or phase-I examination of banking and insurance recruitment exams. There have been no changes in this topic and it can be easily dealt with. You’ll need to improve your vocabulary to answer questions of cloze test.

New Pattern Cloze Test
Directions: In the passage given below there are 5 blanks, each followed by a word given in bold. Each blank has four alternative words given in options (a), (b),(c) and (d). You have to tell which word will best suit the respective blank. Mark (e) as your answer if the word given in bold after the blank is your answer i.e “No change ”.
Brazil, Latin America’s largest economy,1.___(has) coasting along comfortably with record low inflation for a decade and healthy foreign direct investment 2.___(and) the path of recovery from a  recent recession. But the “Lava Jato” anti-corruption movement that 3.___(banned) it three years back seems to distance a long way from delivering on the promise of democratic and transparent governance. Inquiries into public fraud by politicians and captains of business have brought skeletons tumbling out of the cupboard.

Q1. has
(a) have
(b) has had
(c) has been
(d) had
(e) No change

Q2. and
(a) in
(b) so that
(c) that
(d) to
(e) No change

Q3. banned
(a) bans
(b) rocked
(c) rocks
(d) escalates
(e) No change


5. Fillers
Fillers are again vocab based. They test your knowledge and command over language’s vocabulary. Earlier there used to be single or double fillers but now the difficulty level has stepped up for bank and insurance recruitment exams.

Old Pattern: Type 1 Conventional Question (IBPS Clerk Mains 2016)

In each of the following sentence, there are three blank spaces. Below each sentence, there are five options and each option consists of three words which can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence to make the sentence grammatically correct.

Q. Activists in the country have long protested its __________ society that essentially _________ women from travelling, marrying or attending college without permission from male relative, who is called their__________.
(a) benevolent, forbid, steward
(b) Pre- Adamite, prevent, custodian
(c) pre-eminent, restrict, protector
(d) venerable, condemns, manciple
(e) patriarchal, prohibits, guardian

New Pattern

Type 2 (SBI PO Mains 2017)
In question given below, there are two statements, each statement consists of two blanks. You have to choose the option which provides the correct set of words that fits both the blanks in both the statements appropriately and in the same order making them meaningful and grammatically correct.

Q. (1) The molecular targeting of CSCs may improve the _______________ of current chemotherapeutic __________ needed for the management of this disease.
(2) __________ and safety of once-daily ____________ in the treatment of HIV infection is currently under inspection.

(a) Germaneness, medication
(b) Efficacy, regimens
(c) Emasculation, nutriments
(d) Potency, sustenance
(e) Sufficiency, subsistence

6. Phrases and Connectors

Type-1 Phrase Replacement (SBI PO Prelims 2017, IBPS PO Mains 2016)
Direction: Which of the phrases (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold letters to make the sentence grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is, mark (e) i.e., "No correction required" as the answer.

Q. In the modern day, it is common to say you are bored to death if someone or something is incredibly uninteresting.
(a) bored of death
(b) bored from death
(c) bored till death
(d) bored until death
(e) No correction required

Type-2 Phrase Interpretation (SBI PO Mains 2017)

Direction:  In the following question a part of the sentence is given in bold, it is then followed by three sentences which try to explain the meaning of the phrase given in bold. Choose the best set of alternatives from the five options given below each question which explains the meaning of the phrase correctly without altering the meaning of the sentence given as question.
Q. The trial began only in 1996 and a couple of years ago all accused were cleared of all charges by a trial court in what activists have called a grave miscarriage of justice.
(I)All accused involved in the case were cleared of all charges by a trial court in 1996 and that is what activists have called a complete failure of justice in prevailing the truth.
(II)In 1996, by letting go all accused by clearing all charges against them, the trial court once again proved the incompetence of judicial system in justifying the truth.
(III)Activists have felt that the decision by trial court in 1996 of clearing of all the charges against the accused is a serious negligence of true justice by the system.
(a)Only (I) is correct
(b)Only (II) is correct
(c)Both (I) and (III) are correct
(d)None is correct
(e)All are correct

Type 3 IBPS PO Mains 2016
Direction: Select the phrase/connector from the given three options which can be used to form a single sentence from the two sentences given below, implying the same meaning as expressed in the statement sentences.
Q. RBI is concerned about the risk of investing in mutual funds. RBI is likely to ask banks to reduce their investments
in mutual funds.
(A) At the risk of investing ………
(B) To reduce investments ……….
(C) Concern for the risk ……….
(a) Only (A)
(b) Only (B)
(c) Only (C)
(d) Only (A) and (B)
(e) None of these

Type 4 SBI PO Mains 2017

Direction: There are sets of four statements in question given below which when connected using the correct sentence structure forms a complete single sentence without altering the meaning of the sentences given in the question. There are four options given below the question, choose the sentence that forms the correct formation of single sentence which is both grammatically correct and contextually meaningful. If none follows, choose (e) as your answer.
Q. The major thrust of Marx’s political philosophy was aimed at human liberation; it is important to consider the significant shift to comprehend it; the shift occurred in the late 17th century; In that period traditional analysis of the political order based on scarcity was replaced by a philosophy of abundance.
(a)Comprehending the major thrust of Marx’s political philosophy that was aimed at human liberation, it is important to consider the significant shift of late 17th century when the scarcity based on traditional analysis was replaced by a philosophy of abundance.
(b)Marx’s major thrust was on political philosophy aiming human liberation while it is important to consider the significant shift that occurred in the late 17th century, it was then that traditional analysis of the political order based on scarcity was replaced by a philosophy of abundance.
(c)It is important to consider the significant shift in the late 17th century when traditional analysis of the political order based on scarcity replaced philosophy of abundance to comprehend the major thrust of Marx’s political philosophy of human liberation.
(d)To comprehend the major thrust of Marx’s political philosophy that aimed at human liberation, it is important to consider the significant shift that occurred in the late 17th century when traditional analysis of the political order based on scarcity was replaced by a philosophy of abundance.
(e)None of the above is correct.

7. Paragraph Inference

SBI PO Mains 2017

Direction: In the given questions an inference is given in bold which is then followed by three paragraphs. You have to find the paragraph(s) from where it is inferred. Choose the option with the best possible outcome as your choice.

Q. The major concern is security.

(I) The major dilemma for many security professionals is whether the Brexit will make the UK more or less safe when it comes to cybersecurity. One poll found that most security professionals believed there would not be any major cybersecurity implications; however, another poll offered different conclusions, with most respondents believing that a Brexit would weaken cybersecurity because of additional bureaucratic hurdles to information sharing with the EU.
(II) Most debate over Brexit has been about economics, trade and migration. But when David Cameron called the EU referendum in February he cited a new factor, asserting that membership made Britain safer. This week the prime minister went further, hinting that Brexit might increase the risk related to security—and adding that, every time Britain turned its back on Europe, it had come to regret it.
(III) Prime Minister Shinzo Abe touted the implementation of the legislation as an event of “historic importance that makes peace and security of our country even more secure” and “upgrades our deterrence and enables the nation to proactively contribute more than ever to peace and stability of regional and international communities.”
(a) Only (I)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Only (III)
(d) Both (I) and (III)
(e) All are correct

8. Paragraph Fillers

IBPS PO Mains 2016
Direction: In each of the following questions a short passage is given with one of the lines in the passage missing and represented by a blank. Select the best out of the five answer choices given, to make the passage complete and coherent (coherent means logically complete and sound).
Q. The Time Traveler (for so it will be convenient to speak of him) was expounding a recondite matter to us. His grey eyes shone and twinkled, and his usually pale face was flushed and animated. The fire burned brightly, and the soft radiance of the incandescent lights in the lilies of silver caught the bubbles that flashed and passed in our glasses. Our chairs, being his patents, embraced and caressed us rather than submitted to be sat upon, and there was that luxurious after-dinner atmosphere when thought roams gracefully free of the trammels of precision. (_________________)
(a) And slowly and steadily, the atmosphere grew stale and lost all the vibrancy it had
(b) And he put it to us in this way—marking the points with a lean forefinger—as we sat and lazily admired his earnestness over this new paradox (as we thought it) and his fecundity
(c) We sat like toddlers do in a nursery, eagerly anticipating the show the Time Traveler would put on for us
(d) We sat benumbed by the proceedings, for the radiance of the Time Traveler was unimaginable and unbearable
(e) I caught Filby's eye over the shoulder of the Medical Man, and he winked at me solemnly

9. Synonyms and Antonyms

IBPS PO Mains 2016
Direction: Which one word is most nearly the same or opposite in meaning to the given word in the question? Find the correct option having either same or opposite meaning.

Q. Prodigy
(a) Pauper
(b) Despondent
(c) Demure
(d) Wanton
(e) Epitome

Reasoning Ability Section

The year 2016 was revolutionary in the history of banking exams, where English Language Section brought some big surprizes and Reasoning Section became flooded with Puzzles and Seating Arrangement. But Should or Can you avoid Seating Arrangements and Puzzles in Reasoning Section completely? The answer is No, neither you should, nor you can. In Prelims exam itself where there will be a total of 35 questions in reasoning section, there is a high possibility you might face 18-20 questions of Puzzles and Seating Arrangement. We are saying this based on facts and the latest trend of SBI and IBPS Exam. This year itself SBI Prelims had around 23 questions of Puzzle, last year in SBI PO Prelims there were 25 questions of Puzzles and Seating Arrangement and IBPS PO Prelims 2016 had 20 questions from this very topic. 


1. Blood Relation

IBPS PO Prelims 2016

Direction: Study the following information and answer the given questions.
D is daughter of N. E is wife of N.
G is sister of D. C is married to G.
N has no son. K is mother of E.
Q is only daughter of C.
Q. How N is related to K?
(a) Brother-in-law
(b) Cousin
(c) Son in law
(d) Sister
(e) Brother

2. Direction Sense
IBPS PO Prelims 2016, IBPS PO Mains 2016

Direction: Read the given information carefully and answer the given question.
B is 25 m south of A. C is 10 m east of B. D is 30 m north of C. E is 7 m east of D. X is 18 m south of E. M is 12 m south of X. C is 7 m west of M.

Q. B is in which direction from Point D?
(a) South
(b) South-West
(c) North-East
(d) South-East
(e) North

Q. If Point W is 3 m to the north of A, then what is the distance between B and W?
(a) 28 m
(b) 15 m
(c) 21 m
(d) 24 m
(e) 17 m

Data Sufficiency - SBI PO Mains 2017

Direction: In each of the following questions, a question is followed by three statements numbered I, II and III. Read all the statements to find the answer to given question and then answer accordingly that which statement/s can give the answer alone/together.
Q. What is the direction of point U with respect to point X?
Statement I: Point R is 7 m to the North of point Q. Point P is 8 m to the West of point Q. Point R is 6 m to the West of point U.
Statement II: Point B is 9 m to the North of point A. Point P is 5 m to the North of point Z. Point Z is 4 m to the West of point A.
Statement III: Point C is 7 m to the East of point A. Point X is 2 m to the East of point F. Point F is 3 m to the North of point C.
(a) Both I and III
(b) Both II and III
(c) All I, II and III
(d) II and either I or III
(e) Even I, II and III together are also not sufficient

3. Order and Ranking
IBPS PO Prelims 2016
There are six wires in a table A, B, C, D, E and F they have different length but not necessarily in the same order. E is greater than C but less than D and B. A is greater than D and B. A is not longest wire. F is 13 cm. long and E is 4 cm. long.
Q. If D is 5cm less than F what would be the length of D?
(a) 7
(b) 8
(c) 9
(d) Can’t be determined
(e) None of these

SBI PO Prelims 2017
Five persons namely A, B, C, D and E are going to the school in different days of the week, starting from Monday to Friday. Two persons are going between C and B. C is going before Wednesday. D is going to the school immediate after E. A is not going on Friday. Then who among the following person are going to school on Wednesday?
(a) B
(b) C
(c) D
(d) E
(e) A

4. Coding-Decoding

Old Pattern

Direction: Study the information given below and answer the given questions:
In a certain code ‘facing problems with health’ is coded as ‘mlp hlt ngi snk’, ‘health problems on rise’ is coded as ‘hlt sa rtv mlp’, rise with every challenge’ is coded as ‘snk rtv lne riy’ and ‘facing challenge each day’ is coded as ‘ngi riy nop hus’.

Q. What could be a code for “lne”?
(a) facing
(b) with
(c) every
(d) rise
(e) challenge

New Pattern : IBPS PO Mains 2016

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow—
In a certain code language, some statements are coded as follow:
'give solution for problem' is coded as '*N8 #R3 %M7 @E4'
'pure fruit sell plants' is coded as '@T5 %E4 *L4 #S6'
'pet sensed ghostly farm' is coded as '#M4 *D6 @Y7 %T3'
'spa guards picked flake' is coded as ' %D6 @S6 #E5 *A3'.
Q. Which of the following will be the code for ‘fruit picked teach game’?
(a) @T5 %D5 #H4 *E4
(b) @T5 %D6 @H5 *E4
(c) @T5 #H4 *E4 %D6
(d) @T5 #H5 *E4 %D6
(e) @T5 #H4 *E4 %D6

SBI PO Mains 2017
Direction: Study the information carefully answers the questions given below.
@ means either hour hand or minute hand is at 8
# means either hour hand or minute hand is at 5
$ means either hour hand or minute hand is at 4
% means either hour hand or minute hand is at 12
& means either hour hand or minute hand is at 2
£ means either hour hand or minute hand is at 3
Note: if two symbols are given than by default first symbol is consider as hour hand and second one is consider as minute hand. And all time are consider at PM.

Q. If A takes 25 min to reach railway station and his train is scheduled at #& then at what time should he leave to reach the station 5 minute earlier?
(a) $%
(b) $&
(c) &S
(d) $@
(e) £$


Data Sufficiency SBI PO Mains 2017
Direction: What does the code ‘bp’ stand for in the given code language?
Statement I: In the language, ‘black white red’ is coded as ‘df dc or’ and ‘green blue grey’ is coded as ‘st hn wo’
Statement II: In the language, ‘blue pink brown’ is coded as ‘er bp hn’ and ‘pink blue white’ is coded as ‘hn or bp’
Statement III: In the language, ‘green violet orange’ is coded as ‘pa wo kl’ and ‘yellow pink brown’ is coded as ‘bp bi er’
(a) Both II and III
(b) I and either II or III
(c) II and either I or III
(d) Both I and III
(e) All I, II and III


5. Machine Input Output

New Pattern SBI PO Mains 2017
Direction: Study the given information carefully and answer the given questions.
An input-output is given in different steps. Some mathematical operations are done in each step. No mathematical operation is repeated in next step.


As per the rules followed in the steps given above, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.

Q1. Find the addition of the two numbers obtained in step III?
(a) 1.5
(b) 3
(c) 7
(d) 3.5
(e) None of these

Q2. Find the difference between sum of numbers which obtained in 1st step and sum of numbers obtained in all other steps?
(a) 232
(b) 185
(c) 188
(d) 183.5
(e) None of these

Old Pattern

Direction: Study the following information to answer the given questions:
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. (All the numbers are two-digit numbers and all are arranged as per some logic based on the value of the number.)
Input:  tended 54 credit 61 to 71 large 41 group 24
Step I:  41 54 credit 61 to 71 large group 24 tended
Step II:   24 41 54 credit 61 to 71 group tended large
Step III:  61 24 41 54 credit 71 group tended large to
Step IV:  71 61 24 41 54 credit tended large to group
Step V:  54 71 61 24 41 tended large to group credit
Step V is the last step of the arrangement the above input.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate steps for the given input.
Input: our 18 has 71 been 51 no 41 interest 25

Q. In which step the elements ’71 interest been’ found in the same order?
(a) Step III
(b) Step V
(c) Step I
(d) Step II
(e) None of these

5. Syllogism

Old Pattern: IBPS PO Mains 2016, IBPS PO Prelims 2016
Direction: Each question consists of four statements followed by five conclusions. Consider the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions does not logically follow from the given statements using all statements together and mark that conclusion as your answer.
Q. Statements:All chairs are table
Some table are Books
All Books are Pen.
No Pen is a Copy.
Conclusions:
(a)Some table are not copy.
(b) All table being Pen is a possibility.
(c) At least some Copy are Pen.
(d) All Books are not copy.
(e) Some pen are books


New Pattern: IBPS PO Mains 2016
Direction: Each question consists of some conclusion followed by five statements. Consider the given conclusion to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide from which statement, the conclusion can be possible.
Q. Conclusion:No toxic is injection.
Some injection are glucose.
Statement:
(a) All toxic are tablet. No tablet is glucose. Some glucose are medicine. All medicine are injection
(b) Some toxic are tablet. All tablet are injection. Some injection are glucose. All glucose are medicine
(c) All tablet are toxic. No injection is toxic.  Some glucose are injection.  All glucose are medicine.
(d) Some injection are toxic. All injection are tablet.  Some toxic are glucose.  All glucose are medicine
(e) Some medicine are toxic. Some toxic are injection. Some injection are tablet. All tablet are glucose

6. Puzzles and Seating Arrangement

One thing you must keep in mind is you cannot escape from this topic at any cost, then it is to the best of your interest to see it as a must do but with the right approach. The key to identifying which puzzle to solve and which one to skip in the exam is practice…a lot of practice. If you are comfortable in solving linear seating arrangement then in exam you can choose them over the circular ones. You have to find out you are comfortable and confident in solving which type of puzzle and seating arrangement and then go with it. Remember this topic alone consumes most of your time so do try to solve a puzzle within 3-4 minutes or else it will be a wise decision to skip it.

50 Puzzles PDF For IBPS RRB 2017 Exam
7. Inequality

SBI PO Prelims 2017

Q. Which of the following symbols should replace the sign ($) and (#) in the given expression in order to make the expressions P>C and C ≤ B definitely true?
‘A>B≥R$C<R≤Z=M#P≥X’
(a) ≥, >
(b) ≥, ≤
(c) >, =
(d) =, ≥
(e) <, ≤

IBPS PO Prelims 2016

Direction: In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer. Give answer-
(a) If only conclusion II is true
(b) If only conclusion I is true
(c) If both conclusions I and II are true.
(d) If either conclusion I or II is true
(e) If neither conclusion I nor II is true.

1. Statements:S ≤ L ≤ I = P ≥ E > R; L > Q
Conclusions: I. P ≥ S II. I > R

2. Statements:G > R ≥ E = A ≤ T ≤ S; D ≤ A ≤ J
Conclusions: I. T ≥ D II. R > S

8. Apha-Numeric-Symbol Series
Direction: Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below.
R 4 I J M Q 3 % T @ © U K 5 V 1 W $ Y 2 B E 6 # 9 D H 8 G * Z N

Q. Which of the following is the sixth to the left of the fifteenth from the left end of the given arrangement?
(a) 2
(b) #
(c) %
(d) $
(e) T

9. Alphabets
Direction: In each question below is group of letters followed by four combinations of digits/symbols numbered (a), (b), (c) and (d). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters based on the coding system and the conditions given below and mark the number of that combination as your answer. If none of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters, mark (e) i.e., ‘None of these’ as your answer.


Conditions
(i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, the codes of both these are to be interchanged.
(ii) If both the first and the last letters are consonants both these are to be coded as per the code of the last letter.
(iii) If the first letter is vowel and the last letter is a consonant both these are to be coded as ‘S’.
Note: All the remaining letters are to be coded as per their original codes.

Q. XRWHKA
(a) 2@©6#1
(b) 1@©6#2
(c) 1@©6#1
(d) 2@©6#2
(e) None of these

10. Logical Reasoning

Statement & Assumption Type-1 SBI PO Mains 2017

Q. The Government has appealed to all citizens to use potable water judiciously as there is an acute shortage in supply.
Excessive use may lead to huge scarcity in future months.
Which of the assumptions is implicit in the above statement? (An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted)
(a)People may ignore the appeal and continue using water as per their consideration
(b)Government may be able to tap those who do not respond to the appeal
(c)Government may be able to put in place alternate sources of water in the event of a crisis situation
(d)Large number of people may positively respond to the Government’s appeal and help tide over the crisis
(e)Only poor are going to suffer from this shortage of water supply

Statement & Assumption Type-2 IBPS PO Mains 2017

Statement:- By asking five prominent hospitals in the national capital to deposit nearly Rs. 600 crore
to compensate for their failure to treat poor patients, the Delhi government has drawn attention to the social obligation of healthcare providers in the corporate sector as well as the need for timely enforcement of applicable regulations. According to the Delhi government, trusts and egistered societies to which public land was allotted to establish hospitals were required to earmark a percentage of their medical facilities and services for indigent patients.
Assumptions:
I. This strengthens the case for private hospitals to dedicate a part of their services to those who
cannot afford treatment.
II. Social responsibility of hospitals must be monitored and central government should
ensure compliance by the corporate hospitals.
III. There is a great need for the government to monitor and enforce “health services” so that
the poor who cannot afford modern health facilities that are extremely costly- are able to be benefited.
(a) All are implicit
(b) Only III is implicit
(c) Only I and III are implicit
(d) Only I and II are implicit
(e) None is implicit

Strength of Argument Type-1: IBPS PO Mains 2016

Q. It is not often that professional footballers retire from internationals at the peak of their game. When the 29-year-old Lionel Messi, widely reckoned to be the most skilled footballer today, announced after the 2016 Copa America Final against Chile that he would not wear the Argentinian shirt again, he took everyone by surprise. It is not clear if he has made the retirement call in the heat of the moment. It came after Messi failed, yet again, to win a major title with the Argentinian team; he also missed a crucial penalty in the shootout against Chile after efficient but goal-less play in regulation and extra time. In fact, Messi’s overall international record with Argentina has been good, if not spectacular. With him, the team has reached the finals of four important tournaments: the World Cup in 2014 and the Copa America in 2007, 2015 and 2016. According to the given question, you have to decide which of the statement is/are strong on the basis of the given passage:-
After defeating in Copa America Final, Should Messi continues his international career for two years
more?
I. Yes, because it is the only way he can prove himself to the world as a challenging person.
II. No, It is his personal decision to play no more for Argentina and as a player he gave a lot of
contribution to his nation. So we should respect his decision.
III. No, because Messi’s record as a player of Barcelona is quite better than as a player of Argentina. So he should focus on one side rather than playing for both of them.
(a) Only II & III are strong
(b) Only I & III are strong
(c) Only II is strong
(d) Only III is strong
(e) None is strong

Strength of Argument Type-2: SBI PO Mains 2017

Q. The mushrooming of business schools in the country is a cause for shortage of faculty with Ph.D qualification. In addition, the higher pay and generous fringe benefits given by industry has encouraged qualified people to not seek academic positions.
Which of the following statements, if true, would tend to STRENGTHEN the argument?
(a) The average salary for industry positions in Gujarat is more than the average salary for faculty positions in some business schools in Ahmedabad by around 30%
(b) The average salary for industry positions in Gujarat is less than the average salary for faculty positions in a top business school in Ahmedabad by around 30%
(c) The average salary for recent Ph.D graduates in the industry is 20% higher than that in academics
(d) The rate of growth of salaries for the industry positions is equal to the rate of growth of salaries for academic positions for the past three years
(e) None of the above



All The Best!!

47 Days Study Plan for IBPS RRB Prelims 2017

By With No comments:
As we all are well aware of the fact that IBPS RRB PO and Clerk 2017 is going to be a great opportunity for all the aspirants and the preliminary examination will be held in August and November. In IBPS RRB CWE VI (2017-18) the number of vacancies is 8298 for Office Assistant and 5124 for Officer Grade-I. Getting a job in a public sector bank is a brilliant opportunity. You still have much of time, a total of 47 days to prepare for the preliminary examination, only if you are serious about it. So, you have to follow the given plan from 24th of July onwards.

How to prepare for RRB PO Prelims 2017 in 47 days: The two main subjects that you need to win your spurs are Quantitative Aptitude and Reasoning.

Quantitative Aptitude
All that you need to do to perform well at quantitative aptitude section is practice. Learn the basic concepts and practice them well, as for banking exams basic concepts will come in handy rather than tricks. Choose the questions wisely and try not to get stuck on a particular question or topic for too long. Instead of focussing on attempting the maximum number of questions, try focusing on the accuracy with which you attempt the paper.

Reasoning
Reasoning can be a tricky section for most of the students and it is important to the solve questions and at the same time keep a watch on the time that is passing by. We've seen in recent SBI and other Exams that this section was quite challenging and time taking for students. Continuous practice will help you deal with this section too as the solution hits the mind quickly. To ace the grade in reasoning, all you need to do is to practice and only practice. After all, practice makes a man perfect.




Days

Quantitative
Aptitude

Reasoning

1

Tables/Fractions/Cubes/Squares

Alphabets

2

Quick
Calculation Techniques
(Multiplication/Division)

Alphabets

3

Simplification/
Approximation

Blood
Relation

4

Average

Blood
Relation

5

Ratio
and Proportion

Alpha-Numeric-Symbol
series

6

Percentage

Alpha-Numeric-Symbol
series

7

Profit
and Loss

Coding-Decoding

8

Simple
Interest

Coding-Decoding

9

Compound
Interest

Inequalities

10

Allegation
or Mixtures

Inequalities

11

Partnership

Ranking
and Directions

12

Time
and Distance

Ranking
and Directions

13

Boat
and Streams

Syllogism

14

Problems
on Ages

Syllogism

15

Number
Series

Syllogism

16

Number
Series

Data
Sufficiency

17

Time
and Work, Work and Wages

Data
Sufficiency

18

Pipes
and Cisterns

Data
Sufficiency

19

Permutation
and Combinations

Seating
Arrangement

20

Quadratic
Equations/Inequality

Seating
Arrangement

21

Probability

Seating
Arrangement

22

Mensuration
I:Area and Perimeter

Seating
Arrangement

23

Mensuration
II:Volume

Seating
Arrangement

24

Mensuration
III:Surface Area

Puzzle

25

Data
Sufficiency

Puzzle

26

DI
(Table Graph)

Puzzle

27

DI
(Line Graph)

Puzzle

28

DI
(Bar Graph)

Puzzle

29

DI
(Cumulative Bar Graph)

Machine
Input-Output

30

DI
(Pie Charts)

Machine
Input-Output

31

DI
(Radar Graph)

Machine
Input-Output

32

DI
(Missing)

Logical
Reasoning

33

DI
(Case let)

Logical
Reasoning

34

Practice
of First five chapters (1-5)

Practice
of First six chapters (1-6)

35

Practice
of next four (6-9)

Practice
of next six (7-12)

36

Practice
of next four (10-13)

Practice
of next three (13-15)

37

Practice
of next five chapters (14-18)

Practice
of next three chapters (16-18)

38

Practice
of next four (19-22)

Practice
of next four (19-22)

39

Practice
of next three (23-25)

Practice
of next four (23-26)

40

Practice
of next four (26-29)

Practice
of next three (27-29)

41

Practice
of next four (30-33)

Practice
of next four (30-33)

42

Practice
Set-1 and Analysis

Practice
Set-1 and Analysis

43

Practice
Set-2 and Analysis

Practice
Set-2 and Analysis

44

Practice
Set-3 and Analysis

Practice
Set-3 and Analysis

45

Practice
Set-4 and Analysis

Practice
Set-4 and Analysis

46

Practice
Set-5 and Analysis

Practice
Set-5 and Analysis

47

Practice
Set-6 and Analysis

Practice
Set-6 and Analysis

Best Of Luck!!


CurrentAffairs

Maths

Reasoning