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Saturday, December 30, 2017

Current Affairs: Daily GK Update 30th December 2017

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Current Affairs Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2017: 30th Dec 2017

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Dear Aspirants,

Current Affairs Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2017: 26th Dec 2017

Welcome to the world of Current Affairs 2017. With IBPS SO Prelims and IBPS Clerk Mains round the corner, it should be your priority to cover every aspect of Current Affairs on a daily basis for IBPS Clerk and IBPS SO Prelims so that you can do well in the exam. These current affairs are based on current news. Let us see how many questions you attempt accurately.

Q1. For the Tourism Development Project of which of the following state, IBRD Credit of USD 40 Million was signed between India and the World Bank?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Rajasthan
(e) Karnataka

S1. Ans.(c)
Sol. An agreement for IBRD Credit of USD 40 Million from World Bank for “U.P. Pro-Poor Tourism Development Project” was signed between India and the World Bank. The programme size is approximately USD 57.14 million, of which USD 40 million will be financed by the Bank, and the remaining amount will be funded out of State Budget. The programme duration is 5 years.

Q2. The eighth edition of the Indo-Maldives joint military exercise was held recently in Karnataka. The Exercise was named as ____________.
(a) Maldo-X
(b) Naimera-XI
(c) Surakshit
(d) Ekuverin
(e) Paraharan

S2. Ans.(d)
Sol. The two-week long eighth edition of the Indo-Maldives joint military exercise, ‘Ekuverin’, came to an end at Belagavi, Karnataka. ‘Ekuverin’ means ‘friends’ in the Maldivian language. The exercise has been held alternatively in India and Maldives since 2009.

Q3. Which of the following lender has recently entered into MoU with POORTI Agri Services Pvt. Ltd to enable the farmers to purchase agricultural inputs?
(a) Bank of Baroda
(b) Bank of Jammu & Kashmir
(c) Syndicate Bank
(d) State Bank of India
(e) Union Bank of India

S3. Ans.(a)
Sol. Bank of Baroda has entered into MoU with POORTI Agri Services Pvt. Ltd to enable the farmers to purchase agricultural inputs such as fertilizers, pesticides, seeds etc. provided by POORTI. This is a Platform for Online Ordering & Rural Transformation of India known as “POORTI”.

Q4. Prince Harry has been recently named as the president of ______________.
(a) Asian Parks
(b) African Parks
(c) Atlantic Parks
(d) Australian Parks
(e) None of the given options is true

Q5. The Lok Sabha passed the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriages) Bill 2017 making instant triple talaq illegal with up to three years in jail for the husband. Who is the present Minister for Law and Justice of India?
(a) Ashok Gajapathi Raju Pusapati
(b) Jagat Prakash Nadda
(c) Ravi Shankar Prasad
(d) Narendra Singh Tomar
(e) Radha Mohan Singh

S4. Ans.(b)
Sol. Prince Harry has been named the president of African Parks, a conservation group that manages a dozen wildlife areas across the continent.

Q6. The government slashed interest rates on small savings schemes, including National Savings Certificate (NSC) and Public Provident Fund (PPF), by _____________ for the January-March period.
(a) 0.05 percentage point
(b) 0.10 percentage point
(c) 0.15 percentage point
(d) 0.20 percentage point
(e) 0.25 percentage point

S5. Ans.(c)
Sol. The Lok Sabha passed the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriages) Bill 2017 making instant triple talaq illegal with up to three years in jail for the husband. As per the Minister for Law and Justice Ravi Shankar Prasad, the government has to bring a bill because the practice of instant triple talaq has continued despite the Supreme Court order terming it illegal.

S6. Ans.(d)
Sol. The government slashed interest rates on small savings schemes, including National Savings Certificate (NSC) and Public Provident Fund (PPF), by 0.2 percentage point for the January-March period from the rates applicable in the previous quarter. This will prompt banks to lower deposit rates.

Q7. As per the report by CARE Ratings, what is the ranking of India in list of countries with the highest levels of non-performing assets (NPA)?
(a) 7th
(b) 10th
(c) 5th
(d) 3rd
(e) 8th

S7. Ans.(c)
Sol. India has the highest level of non-performing assets (NPA) among BRICS countries and is ranked fifth on a list of countries with the highest levels of NPAs, as per the report by CARE Ratings.

Q8. According to the recent notification of Markets regulator SEBI, cross-holding in credit rating agencies (CRAs) will be capped at _______________.
(a) 10 percent
(b) 12 percent
(c) 14 percent
(d) 16 percent
(e) 18 percent

S8. Ans.(a)
Sol. Markets regulator SEBI stated that cross-holding in credit rating agencies (CRAs) will be capped at 10 percent and also decided to raise the minimum networth requirement to Rs 25 crore from the current Rs 5 crore.

Q9. Name the Cryptocurrency dealer which has recently announced the launch of India’s first mobile application for transacting in virtual currencies.
(a) Zebpay
(b) Pluto Exchange
(c) Coinsecure
(d) Mycelium Exchange
(e) LocalBitcoins

S9. Ans.(b)
Sol. Cryptocurrency dealer 'Pluto Exchange' announced the launch of India’s first mobile application for transacting in virtual currencies. The Pluto Exchange mobile app offers a solution to the coordination problem between payment processors, financial gateways and banks.

Q10. India’s ace chess player Viswanathan Anand won the World Rapid Chess tournament title, recently. The championship was held in ________________.
(a) Saudi Arabia
(b) Jordan
(c) Indonesia
(d) UAE
(e) Oman

S10. Ans.(a)
Sol. India’s ace chess player Viswanathan Anand won the World Rapid Chess tournament title in Saudi Arabia by beating Russia’s Vladimir Fedoseev 2-0 in a two-game tie-break.

Q11. Who is the present chairperson of Securities and Exchange Board of India?
(a) Mohammad Mustafa
(b) Ajay Tyagi
(c) Harsh Kumar Bhanwala
(d) U K Sinha
(e) S B Bhave

S11. Ans.(b)
Sol. SEBI stands for Securities and Exchange Board of India. SEBI Chairman is Ajay Tyagi, Headquarters in Mumbai.

Q12. What is the present Annual Rate of Interest on Kisan Vikas Patra (KVP)?
(a) 8.4%
(b) 7.8%
(c) 7.5%
(d) 8.2%
(e) 7.3%

S12. Ans.(e)
Sol. Annual Rate of Interest on Kisan Vikas Patra (KVP) is 7.3 percent.

Q13. Who is the present chairman of Bank of Baroda?
(a) Mahesh Kumar Jain
(b) P.S.Jayakumar
(c) Ravi Venkatesan
(d) Malweyn Rego
(e) Ashok Sinha

S13. Ans.(c)
Sol. Bank of Baroda Chairman- Ravi Venkatesan, Managing Director & CEO- P.S.Jayakumar.

Q14. Who is the present chief of Army staff?
(a) Sunil Lanba
(b) Dalbir Singh Dhanoa
(c) Bipin Rawat
(d) Vikram Singh
(e) Rajendrasinhji Jadeja

S14. Ans.(c)
Sol. The present Chief of Indian Army Staff is Bipin Rawat.

Q15. The World Bank headquarters in _______________.
(a) New York, USA
(b) Paris, France
(c) Geneva, Switzerland
(d) Washington DC, USA
(e) The Hague, Netherlands

S15. Ans.(d)
Sol. World Bank President- Jim Yong Kim (12th), Headquarters- Washington DC, USA.

Reasoning Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains Exam

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Dear Readers,

The reasoning is a game of wits and presence of mind! Yes, it is true and it might seem as the greatest of the challenge after English Section’s surprises but yet this one can easily be dealt with. You just need correct practice and hardwire your brain to quickly make decisions about what to attempt and what to leave. And for same we are providing you questions of Reasoning Question and Answers. Solve these to Practice latest pattern reasoning question for bank exams.

Directions (1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement (All the numbers are two digit numbers)
Input     : unless 46 that 54 format 26 dean 68 both 32
Step I    :   both unless 46 that 54 format 26 dean 32 68
Step II :   dean both unless 46 that format 26 32 68 54
Step III : format dean both unless that 26 32 68 54 46
Step IV : that format dean both unless 26 68 54 46 32
Step V   : unless that format dean both 68 54 46 32 26

Step V is the last step of the above arrangement.
As per the rules followed in the steps given above, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.
Input: motor 48 wall 36 stack 64 have 52 get 18

Solution (1-5):
Students let us understand the Logic behind this Question and let’s understand how to solve it. When we see the each step, then we can find that both number and words are arranged in each step.
a) For words arrangement- Words are arranged in ascending order according to English dictionary from left to right.
b) For number arrangement- Numbers are arranged in descending order from to right to left in each step.

Input: motor 48 wall 36 stack 64 have 52 get 18
Step-I:    get motor 48 wall 36 stack have 52 18 64
Step-II:   have get motor 48 wall 36 stack 18 64 52
Step-III: motor have get wall 36 stack 18 64 52 48
Step-IV: stack motor have get wall 18 64 52 48 36
Step-V: wall stack motor have get 64 52 48 36 18

Q1. Which of the following represents the position of ‘64’ in the fifth step?
(a) Eighth from the left end
(b) Sixth from the left end
(c) Fourth from the right end
(d) Sixth from the right end
(e) None of these

S1.(b)

Q2. Which of the following would be fourth to the left of second to the right of “18” in Step IV ?
(a) get
(b)mobile
(c) has
(d) stock
(e) None of these

S2.(a)

Q3. In the last step of the rearrangement, ‘wall’ is related to ‘18’ and ‘stack’ is related to ‘36’ in a certain way. Which of the following would ‘motor’ be related to, following the same pattern?
(a) 48
(b) 52
(c) 64
(d) got
(e) None of these

S3.(a)

Q4. How many elements (words or numbers) are there between ‘have’ and ‘18’ as they appear in the last but one of the outputs?
(a) One
(b) Three
(c) Six
(d) Five
(e) None of these

S4.(e)

Q5. Which step number would be the following output?
motor have get wall 36 stack 18 64 52 48
(a) Step IV
(b) Step V
(c) Step VI
(d) Step VII
(e) Step III

S5.(e)

Directions (6-10): Read the following information carefully to answer the questions given below.
Seven Persons A, B, C, D, E, F and G who all lives on a seven-storey building but not necessarily in the same order. The lowermost floor of the building is numbered 1, and the topmost floor is numbered 7.
They all likes different brands i.e. Puma, HRX, Nike, Reebok, Woodland, Fila and Adidas but not necessarily in the same order. C likes woodland brand and he lives on an odd numbered floor immediately below the one who likes Reebok. E lives one of the floor above F but not on odd numbered floor. The number of persons who lives between the one who likes Nike and the one who likes Reebok is same as the number of persons who lives between the one who likes Reebok and the one who likes Adidas. B likes Puma brand and lives on the odd numbered floor immediately below E. The one who likes HRX lives immediately above the one who likes Puma brand. D does not like Nike brand. There is one floor between F and G, who does not like Reebok brand. The one who likes Nike lives above the one who likes Adidas brand.

Q6. Who among the following likes Fila Brand?
(a) C
(b) A
(c) F
(d) D
(e) G

S6.Ans.(e)

Q7. A lives on which of the following floor?
(a) 6th Floor
(b) Top Floor
(c) Ground Floor
(d) 5th Floor
(e) None of these

S7.Ans.(b)

Q8. Who among the following likes Reebok brand?
(a) A
(b) G
(c) D
(d) F
(e) None of these

S8.Ans.(d)

Q9. G lives on which of the following floor?
(a) 2nd Floor
(b) 4th Floor
(c) 1st Floor
(d) None of these
(e) 5th Floor

S9.Ans.(a)

Q10. If B is related to Woodland and in the same way C is related to Adidas then following the same pattern A is related to?
(a) HRX
(b) None of these
(c) Puma
(d) Reebok
(e) Fila

S10.Ans.(c)

Directions(11-15): In these questions relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statement and select the appropriate answer.

Q11. Statements:
A < D = M ≥ R; S ≥ M ≥ N
Conclusions:
I. R < S
II. R = S
(a) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
(b) Either conclusion I or II is true
(c) Only conclusion I is true
(d) Both conclusion I and II are true
(e) Only conclusion II is true

S11. Ans.(b)
Sol. Conclusions:
I. R < S ( Not True )
II. R = S ( Not True )

Q12. Statements:
E > Z = U ≥ T; Y > U ≥ X
Conclusions:
I. E > Y
II. E > X
(a) Both conclusions I and II are true
(b) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
(c) Either conclusion I or II is true
(d) Only conclusion II is true
(e) Only conclusion I is true

S12. Ans.(d)
Sol. Conclusions:
I. E > Y ( Not True )
II. E > X ( True )

Q13. Statements:
A ≥ B ≤ C = T, A < L ≥ V
Conclusions:
I. V ≤ C
II. C > V
(a) Only conclusion I is true
(b) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
(c) Either conclusion I or II is true
(d) Only conclusion II is true
(e) Both conclusion I and II are true

S13. Ans.(b)
Sol. Conclusions:
I. V ≤ C ( Not True )
II. C > V ( Not True )

Q14. Statements:
D < E ≤ C; A > D; B ≥ C
Conclusions:
I. B > D
II. A ≥ C
(a) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
(b) Both conclusions I and II are true
(c) Only conclusion II is true
(d) Only conclusion I is true
(e) Either conclusions I or II is true

S14. Ans.(d)
Sol. Conclusions:
I. B > D ( True )
II. A ≥ C ( Not True )

Q15. Statements:
D > E ≥ C; A > D; B ≥ C
Conclusions:
I. A > C
II. E < A
(a) Only conclusion I is true
(b) Either conclusion I or II is true
(c) Only conclusion II is true
(d) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
(e) Both conclusions I and II are true

S15. Ans.(e)
Sol. Conclusions:
I. A > C ( True )
II. E < A ( True )

Reasoning Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains Exam

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English Practice Questions For IBPS Clerk Mains 2017 (Answers)

By QA channel With No comments:

Dear Aspirants,

English Practice Questions For IBPS SO Prelims 2017

English Section is a topic that is feared by most of the candidates appearing in the IBPS Clerk Mains Exam. Though the sheer number of concepts and rules may seem intimidating at first, with discipline and the right approach, it is not difficult to master these concepts and their application to questions. Through such English Quizzes for IBPS Clerk and other upcoming exams, we will provide you with all types of high-level questions to ace the questions based on new pattern IBPS Clerk Mains.

Directions (1-5) The following question consists of two sentences. Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it and mark your answer accordingly from the given options.

Q1.
I. I drive more quicklier than my brother.
II. My sister is more careful with her writing than I am with mine.

(a) if there is an error only in the first sentence;
(b) if there is an error only in the second sentence;
(c) if there are errors in both sentences; and
(d) if there is no error in either of the sentences.
(e) If there are more than two errors in either of the sentence.

S1. Ans.(a)
Sol. If there is an error only in the first sentence. Correct sentence -I drive more quickly than my brother.

Q2.
I. Before he leaves, make sure his room is clean.
II. Please give me a ice.

(a) if there is an error only in the first sentence;
(b) if there is an error only in the second sentence;
(c) if there are errors in both sentences; and
(d) if there is no error in either of the sentences.
(e) If there are more than two errors in either of the sentence.

S2. Ans.(b)
Sol. If there is an error only in the second sentence.
Correct sentence -Please give me an ice cube.

Q3.
I. I studied the French in high school for four years.
II. The creativity is a valuable quality in children.

(a) if there is an error only in the first sentence;
(b) if there is an error only in the second sentence;
(c) if there are errors in both sentences; and
(d) if there is no error in either of the sentences.
(e) If there are more than two errors in either of the sentence.

S3. Ans.(c)
Sol. If there are errors in both sentences
The article is omitted before nouns that refer to abstract ideas-Creativity is a valuable quality in children.
Many languages and nationalities are not preceded by an article. -I studied French in high school for four years.

Q4.
I. Olympic athletes usually like practicing, competing, and eating ice cream sandwiches.
II. He was hungry after he covered the gown in sequins, so he had a steak for dinner.

(a) if there is an error only in the first sentence;
(b) if there is an error only in the second sentence;
(c) if there are errors in both sentences; and
(d) if there is no error in either of the sentences.
(e) If there are more than two errors in either of the sentence.

S4. Ans.(d)
Sol. If there is no error in either of the sentences.

Q5.
I. Teachers, a noble profession, involves a lot of patience.
II. Does Tina have much homework to do this evening?

(a) if there is an error only in the first sentence;
(b) if there is an error only in the second sentence;
(c) if there are errors in both sentences; and
(d) if there is no error in either of the sentences.
(e) If there are more than two errors in either of the sentence.

S5. Ans.(a)
Sol. Teachers is not a profession; teaching is. the original sentence clearly intended teaching, as a profession, to be the subject, and the predicate was intended to show that teaching does indeed require a lot of patience.

Direction(6-15) In each of the following sentences, there is a blank space, followed by some choices of words given in options. You have to determine which of these words fits well in all making them meaningful and grammatically correct. Word can be modified according to the tense of the sentence keeping the meaning of root word intact. If none of these words fit well, mark your answer as none of these.

Q6.
I. The two currencies are approaching ______ for the first time in decades.
II.Currently, there is rough ______ in the number of students entering and graduating from the school system.
III.On one hand, the rising drinking among women is a sign of ______ .
(a) incline
(b) dividend
(c) freedom
(d) parity
(e) integration

S6. Ans.(d)
Sol. Correct choice is option D.
parity means the quality or state of being equal or equivalent

Q7.
I. Homicide that occurs during the course of an attempted kidnapping is a ______ crime in some states.
II. Like most homeowners, her house is her biggest ______ asset.
III.The governor wasted his political ______ on an unpopular issue.
(a) big
(b) intention
(c) capital
(d) enhance
(e) revival

S7. Ans.(c)
Sol.Correct choice is option C.
capital -of a crime : having death as a possible punishment or the money, property, etc., that a person or business owns

Q8.
I. People are often ________ of their surroundings and upbringing.
II.Together, the teams are working 24 hours a day for a ________ that promises much higher risk than it does profit.
III. This book is the ________ of many years of hard work.
(a) product
(b) determined
(c) resource
(d) crucial
(e) beginning

S8. Ans.(a)
Sol.Correct choice is option A.

product means something that is made or grown to be sold or used, someone or something that is produced or influenced by a particular environment or experience .

Q9.
I. She has an ________ dislike for/of her husband's friend.
II.He was an ________ young man who was very determined to do well in school.
III. After many years of ________ study, he received his medical degree.
(a) brave
(b) intense
(c) utter
(d) controlled
(e) obvious

S9. Ans.(b)
Sol.Correct choice is option B.
Intense means very great in degree, very strong, done with or showing great energy, enthusiasm, or effort, of a person or very serious

Q10.
I. There was a ________ on ethics within the agency.
II.They detected high ________ of pollutants in the water.
III.The ________ of PM2.5, the smallest particulate matter, is at 153 micrograms per cubic meter.
(a) majority
(b) respect
(c) concentration
(d) polarity
(e) outcome

S10. Ans.(c)
Sol.Correct choice is option C.
concentration means the ability to give your attention or thought to a single object or activity, the ability to concentrate

Q11.
I. He made an ________ to swim across the lake.
II.Do not ________ to repair the equipment without the proper tools.
III. Police report that there has been an ________ on the actor's life.
(a) futile
(b) way
(c) think
(d) attempt
(e) chance

S11. Ans.(d)
Sol.Correct choice is option D.
Attempt means to try to do (something) : to try to accomplish or complete (something) or an attempt on someone's life means an act of trying to kill someone or a usually unsuccessful effort to kill someone

Q12.
I. She opened the door and ________ cautiously into the room.
II. Our understanding of this disease has ________ rapidly in recent years.
III.He was ________ his own interests at the expense of his friend's.
(a) develop
(b) clarify
(c) called
(d) quick
(e) advanced

S12. Ans.(e)
Sol. Correct choice is option E.
Advance means to move forward, to go forward or to make progress, to help the progress of (something).
He was advancing his own interests at the expense of his friend's.

Q13.
I.They ________ moved away when they saw the oncoming car.
II.we moved ________ to deal with our auditor's questions
III.We made a ________ decision, but it turned out to be a good one.
(a) seem
(b) clear
(c) quick
(d) difficult
(e) new

S13. Ans.(c)
Sol.Correct choice is option C.
quickly means at a fast speed; rapidly.
I. They quickly moved away when they saw the oncoming car.
II. we moved quickly to deal with our auditor's questions
IiI.We made a quick decision, but it turned out to be a good one.

Q14.
I. He forgot his ________ and reached across the table for the salt.
II. I objected to the ________ in which the decision was made.
III.He had never been on a boat before, but he walked along the deck as if to the ________ born.
(a) manner
(b) value
(c) scope
(d) recognize
(e) intense

S14. Ans.(a)
Sol. Correct choice is option A.
Manner means the way that something is done or happens, to the manner born means suited to a particular position, role, or status in a way that seems very natural

Q15.
I. They are still considered refugees. Their ________ have not changed.
II.They want to maintain the city's ________ as a major tourist attraction.
III.He wants to improve his ________ in the community.
(a) mind
(b) status
(c) repots
(d) future
(e) dignity

S15. Ans.(b)
Sol. Correct choice is option B.
Status means the position or rank of someone or something when compared to others in a society, organization, group, etc.
I. They are still considered refugees. Their statuses have not changed.

English Practice Questions For IBPS Clerk Mains 2017 (Answers)

By QA channel With No comments:

English Practice Questions For IBPS Clerk Mains 2017 (Answers)

Dear Aspirants,

English Practice Questions For IBPS SO Prelims 2017

English Section is a topic that is feared by most of the candidates appearing in the IBPS Clerk Mains Exam. Though the sheer number of concepts and rules may seem intimidating at first, with discipline and the right approach, it is not difficult to master these concepts and their application to questions. Through such English Quizzes for IBPS Clerk and other upcoming exams, we will provide you with all types of high-level questions to ace the questions based on new pattern IBPS Clerk Mains.

Directions (1-5) The following question consists of two sentences. Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it and mark your answer accordingly from the given options.

Q1.
I. I drive more quicklier than my brother.
II. My sister is more careful with her writing than I am with mine.

(a) if there is an error only in the first sentence;
(b) if there is an error only in the second sentence;
(c) if there are errors in both sentences; and
(d) if there is no error in either of the sentences.
(e) If there are more than two errors in either of the sentence.

S1. Ans.(a)
Sol. If there is an error only in the first sentence. Correct sentence -I drive more quickly than my brother.

Q2.
I. Before he leaves, make sure his room is clean.
II. Please give me a ice.

(a) if there is an error only in the first sentence;
(b) if there is an error only in the second sentence;
(c) if there are errors in both sentences; and
(d) if there is no error in either of the sentences.
(e) If there are more than two errors in either of the sentence.

S2. Ans.(b)
Sol. If there is an error only in the second sentence.
Correct sentence -Please give me an ice cube.

Q3.
I. I studied the French in high school for four years.
II. The creativity is a valuable quality in children.

(a) if there is an error only in the first sentence;
(b) if there is an error only in the second sentence;
(c) if there are errors in both sentences; and
(d) if there is no error in either of the sentences.
(e) If there are more than two errors in either of the sentence.

S3. Ans.(c)
Sol. If there are errors in both sentences
The article is omitted before nouns that refer to abstract ideas-Creativity is a valuable quality in children.
Many languages and nationalities are not preceded by an article. -I studied French in high school for four years.

Q4.
I. Olympic athletes usually like practicing, competing, and eating ice cream sandwiches.
II. He was hungry after he covered the gown in sequins, so he had a steak for dinner.

(a) if there is an error only in the first sentence;
(b) if there is an error only in the second sentence;
(c) if there are errors in both sentences; and
(d) if there is no error in either of the sentences.
(e) If there are more than two errors in either of the sentence.

S4. Ans.(d)
Sol. If there is no error in either of the sentences.

Q5.
I. Teachers, a noble profession, involves a lot of patience.
II. Does Tina have much homework to do this evening?

(a) if there is an error only in the first sentence;
(b) if there is an error only in the second sentence;
(c) if there are errors in both sentences; and
(d) if there is no error in either of the sentences.
(e) If there are more than two errors in either of the sentence.

S5. Ans.(a)
Sol. Teachers is not a profession; teaching is. the original sentence clearly intended teaching, as a profession, to be the subject, and the predicate was intended to show that teaching does indeed require a lot of patience.

Direction(6-15) In each of the following sentences, there is a blank space, followed by some choices of words given in options. You have to determine which of these words fits well in all making them meaningful and grammatically correct. Word can be modified according to the tense of the sentence keeping the meaning of root word intact. If none of these words fit well, mark your answer as none of these.

Q6.
I. The two currencies are approaching ______ for the first time in decades.
II.Currently, there is rough ______ in the number of students entering and graduating from the school system.
III.On one hand, the rising drinking among women is a sign of ______ .
(a) incline
(b) dividend
(c) freedom
(d) parity
(e) integration

S6. Ans.(d)
Sol. Correct choice is option D.
parity means the quality or state of being equal or equivalent

Q7.
I. Homicide that occurs during the course of an attempted kidnapping is a ______ crime in some states.
II. Like most homeowners, her house is her biggest ______ asset.
III.The governor wasted his political ______ on an unpopular issue.
(a) big
(b) intention
(c) capital
(d) enhance
(e) revival

S7. Ans.(c)
Sol.Correct choice is option C.
capital -of a crime : having death as a possible punishment or the money, property, etc., that a person or business owns

Q8.
I. People are often ________ of their surroundings and upbringing.
II.Together, the teams are working 24 hours a day for a ________ that promises much higher risk than it does profit.
III. This book is the ________ of many years of hard work.
(a) product
(b) determined
(c) resource
(d) crucial
(e) beginning

S8. Ans.(a)
Sol.Correct choice is option A.

product means something that is made or grown to be sold or used, someone or something that is produced or influenced by a particular environment or experience .

Q9.
I. She has an ________ dislike for/of her husband's friend.
II.He was an ________ young man who was very determined to do well in school.
III. After many years of ________ study, he received his medical degree.
(a) brave
(b) intense
(c) utter
(d) controlled
(e) obvious

S9. Ans.(b)
Sol.Correct choice is option B.
Intense means very great in degree, very strong, done with or showing great energy, enthusiasm, or effort, of a person or very serious

Q10.
I. There was a ________ on ethics within the agency.
II.They detected high ________ of pollutants in the water.
III.The ________ of PM2.5, the smallest particulate matter, is at 153 micrograms per cubic meter.
(a) majority
(b) respect
(c) concentration
(d) polarity
(e) outcome

S10. Ans.(c)
Sol.Correct choice is option C.
concentration means the ability to give your attention or thought to a single object or activity, the ability to concentrate

Q11.
I. He made an ________ to swim across the lake.
II.Do not ________ to repair the equipment without the proper tools.
III. Police report that there has been an ________ on the actor's life.
(a) futile
(b) way
(c) think
(d) attempt
(e) chance

S11. Ans.(d)
Sol.Correct choice is option D.
Attempt means to try to do (something) : to try to accomplish or complete (something) or an attempt on someone's life means an act of trying to kill someone or a usually unsuccessful effort to kill someone

Q12.
I. She opened the door and ________ cautiously into the room.
II. Our understanding of this disease has ________ rapidly in recent years.
III.He was ________ his own interests at the expense of his friend's.
(a) develop
(b) clarify
(c) called
(d) quick
(e) advanced

S12. Ans.(e)
Sol. Correct choice is option E.
Advance means to move forward, to go forward or to make progress, to help the progress of (something).
He was advancing his own interests at the expense of his friend's.

Q13.
I.They ________ moved away when they saw the oncoming car.
II.we moved ________ to deal with our auditor's questions
III.We made a ________ decision, but it turned out to be a good one.
(a) seem
(b) clear
(c) quick
(d) difficult
(e) new

S13. Ans.(c)
Sol.Correct choice is option C.
quickly means at a fast speed; rapidly.
I. They quickly moved away when they saw the oncoming car.
II. we moved quickly to deal with our auditor's questions
IiI.We made a quick decision, but it turned out to be a good one.

Q14.
I. He forgot his ________ and reached across the table for the salt.
II. I objected to the ________ in which the decision was made.
III.He had never been on a boat before, but he walked along the deck as if to the ________ born.
(a) manner
(b) value
(c) scope
(d) recognize
(e) intense

S14. Ans.(a)
Sol. Correct choice is option A.
Manner means the way that something is done or happens, to the manner born means suited to a particular position, role, or status in a way that seems very natural

Q15.
I. They are still considered refugees. Their ________ have not changed.
II.They want to maintain the city's ________ as a major tourist attraction.
III.He wants to improve his ________ in the community.
(a) mind
(b) status
(c) repots
(d) future
(e) dignity

S15. Ans.(b)
Sol. Correct choice is option B.
Status means the position or rank of someone or something when compared to others in a society, organization, group, etc.
I. They are still considered refugees. Their statuses have not changed.

Frequently Asked questions of Static Awareness for IBPS Exams 2017

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Dear Aspirants,

Prepare Static Awareness G.K. Questions for upcoming banking recruitment exams with this questionnaire of most expected and frequently asked static awareness question for IBPS SO Prelims, IBPS Clerk Mains 2017 other banking and insurance exams.

Q1. Where are the headquarters of the Organisation of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) situated ?
(a) Geneva
(b) Vienna
(c) Brussels
(d) The Hague
(e) None of the above

S1. Ans(b)
Sol. Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries is an intergovernmental organization of 14 nations, founded in 1960 in Baghdad by the first five members. OPEC had its headquarters in Geneva, Switzerland, in the first five years of its existence. This was moved to Vienna, Austria, on September 1, 1965.

Q2. Khajuraho temples were built by rulers of which dynasty ?
(a) Chola
(b) Pallava
(c) Chalukya
(d) Chandela
(e) None of the above

S2. Ans(d)
Sol. The Khajuraho Temples in Madhya Pradesh are amongst the most beautiful medieval monuments in India. Originally a group of 85, they are the largest group of Hindu and Jain temples in the world, although only about 25 of them remain today. The Khajuraho Temples were built by the Chandella rulers between AD 900 and 1130, during the golden period of the Chandela dynasty. It is presumed that every Chandella ruler built at least one temple in his lifetime.

Q3. The book `Beyond The Last Blue Mountain' written by R.M.Lala is the biography of which industrialist ?
(a) G.D.Birla
(b) Dhirubhai Ambani
(c) Jamnalal Bajaj
(d) Mukesh Ambani
(e) J.R.D.Tata

S3. Ans(e)
Sol. An exhaustive and unforgettable portrait of India's greatest and most respected industrialist. Written with J.R.D. Tata's co-operation, this superb biography tells the J.R.D. story from his birth to 1993, the year in which he died in Switzerland.

Q4. Which is the largest brackish water lake in India ?
(a) Chilka Lake
(b) Pulicat Lake
(c) Kaliveli Lake
(d) Wular Lake
(e) Pangong Tso

S4. Ans(a)
Sol. The Caspian Sea is the world's largest lake and contains brackish water with a salinity about one-third that of normal seawater. Lake Chilka, India's largest lake, classified as a brackish water body. Chilika lake is a brackish water lagoon, spread over the Puri, Khurda and Ganjam districts of Odisha state on the east coast of India.

Q5. Which scientist is known as the Father of the Green Revolution in India ?
(a) Verghese Kurien
(b) M.S.Swaminathan
(c) Raja Ramanna
(d) A.P.J.Abdul Kalam
(e) Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar

S5. Ans(b)
Sol. Swaminathan is known as "Indian Father of Green Revolution" for his leadership and success in introducing and further developing high-yielding varieties of wheat in India. He is the founder and chairman of the MS Swaminathan Research Foundation.

Q6. What is the approximate playing time of full version of 'Jana Gana Mana', the National Anthem of India?
(a) 42 seconds
(b) 52 seconds
(c) 62 seconds
(d) 72 seconds
(e) 82 seconds

S6. Ans.(c)
Sol. The National Anthem of India is played or sung on various occasions. The occasions on which these are to be played or sung, and about the need for paying respect to the anthem by observance of proper decorum on such occasions. Full version of the Anthem and its playing time is approximately 52 seconds. A short version consisting of the first and last lines of the National Anthem is also played on certain occasions. Playing time of the short version is about 20 seconds.

Q7. Which city is famous for Chikankari embroidery?
(a) Srinagar
(b) Lucknow
(c) Hyderabad
(d) Jodhpur
(e) Jaipur

S7. Ans.(b)
Sol. Chikan is a traditional embroidery style from Lucknow, India. Literally translated, the word means embroidery. Believed to have been introduced by Nur Jehan, the wife of Mughal emperor Jahangir, it is one of Lucknow's best known textile decoration styles. The market for local chikan is mainly in Chowk, Lucknow.

Q8. The Gir Forest National Park (Sasan Gir), the only home of the Asiatic Lions, is situated in which state?
(a) Sikkim
(b) Gujrat
(c) Mizoram
(d) Arunachal Pradesh
(e) Assam

S8. Ans.(b)
Sol. The Gir Forest National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary is a forest and wildlife sanctuary near Talala Gir in Gujarat, India. Established in 1965, with a total area of 1,412 km2. Its region is the sole home of the Asiatic lion in the wilderness, and is considered to be one of the most important protected areas in Asia due to its supported species.

Q9. Who is the Supreme Commander of Indian armed forces?
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Defence Minister
(d) Chief of Army Staff
(e) None of the above

S9. Ans.(a)
Sol. The Indian Armed Forces are the military forces of the Republic of India. It consists of three professional uniformed services: the Indian Army, Indian Navy, and Indian Air Force. The President of India is the Supreme Commander of the Indian Armed Forces. The Indian Armed Forces are under the management of the Ministry of Defence (MoD) of the Government of India.

Q10. Which lake seprates the Hyderabad, capital of Andhra Pradesh, from its twin city Secunderabad?
(a) Durgam Cheruvu
(b) Ramgarh Tal Lake
(c) Hussain Sagar
(d) Osman Sagar
(e) Kolleru Lake

S10. Ans.(c)
Sol. Hyderabad is paired with Secunderabad, with a man made lake (Hussain Sagar) separating the two cities. Secunderabad cantonment is the largest in India and the city was founded in the 18th century. Both the cities are often called as twin cities.

Q11. The name of which Indian classical dance style, originated in north India, literally means 'Story Teller' ?
(a) Odissi
(b) Kuchipudi
(c) Kathak
(d) Bharatanatyam
(e) None of the above

S11. Ans(c)
Sol. Kathak is one of the most important classical dances of India. Kathak is said to be derived from the word katha, meaning "the art of storytelling." The Kathak dance form originated in north India and was very similar to the Bharatnatyam dance form. In ancient India, there were Kathakars or bards who used to recite religious and mythological tales to the accompaniment music, mime and dance.

Q12. Jama Masjid at Delhi, the largest in India, was built by which Mughal emperor ?
(a) Akbar
(b) Jahangir
(c) Aurangzeb
(d) Shahjahan
(e) Babur

S12. Ans(d)
Sol.The Masjid-i Jahan-Numa, commonly known as the Jama Masjid of Delhi, is one of the largest mosques in India.It was built by Mughal emperor Shah Jahan between 1644 and 1656 at a cost of 1 million rupees, and was inaugurated by an imam from Bukhara, present-day Uzbekistan.

Q13. Which freedom fighter is also known as Lokmanya ?
(a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(b) Jai Praksha Narain
(c) Gopal Krishan Gokhle
(d) Lala Lajpat Rai
(e) Bhagat Singh

S13. Ans(a)
Sol. Bal Gangadhar Tilak is considered as Father of Indian National Movement. Bal Gangadhar Tilak was a multifaceted personality. He was a social reformer, freedom fighter, national leader, and a scholar of Indian history, sanskrit, hinduism, mathematics and astronomy. Bal Gangadhar Tilak was popularly called as Lokmanya (Beloved of the people). During freedom struggle, his slogan “Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it” inspired millions of Indians.

Q14. Where is the Indira Point, the southernmost point of land in the territory of India, situated ?
(a) Lakshadweep
(b) Andaman & Nicobar Islands
(c) Kerala
(d) Tamilnadu
(e) None of the above

S14. Ans(b)
Sol. Indira Point is the name of the southernmost point of Republic of India. It is situated on Great Nicobar Island in the Nicobar Islands, which are located in the eastern Indian Ocean. This is not on the Indian mainland, but within the Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

Q15. In which river is India's largest riverine island Majuli is situated ?
(a) Ganga
(b) Yamuna
(c) Mahanadi
(d) Godavari
(e) Brahmaputra

S15. Ans(e)
Sol. Majuli or Majoli is the world biggest river island in the world in the Brahmaputra River, Assam, India and also 1st island district of the country. The island is formed by the Brahmaputra river in the south and the Kherkutia Xuti, an anabranch of the Brahmaputra, joined by the Subansiri River in the north. Majuli island is accessible by ferries from the city of Jorhat.

Professional Knowledge Questions for IBPS SO HR Mains 2017

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Dear Aspirants,

Test your Professional Knowledge of HR with this questionnaire to prepare for IBPS HR Officer Examination. To score in IBPS SO (HR) Mains candidate must have adequate knowledge of Industrial Relations, Job Evaluation, Human Resource Planning, Labour Laws, Training and Development and more. This quiz covers important chapters of HR to help you prepare for the exam.

Q.1. Read the following statements on HRD need analysis. Identify the one which is not true:
(a) HRD needs can be identified at strategic, organisational, operational, task and person levels.
(b) HRD needs can be diagnostic, analytic, compliance oriented and proactive.
(c) HRD needs analysis is a very cost-effective process.
(d) Task related KSA analysis and training need analysis are integral part of HRD need analysis.
(e) It is a process by which an organization’s HRD needs are identified and articulated.

S1. Ans (c)
Sol. The collection of data through various methods for HRD analysis makes it a very lengthy, time taking and an expensive process.

Q.2. Match the following theories of career planning with their propagators:
Theories of career planning:
(A) Career anchor model
(B) Career path model
(C) Career choice model
(D) Career stages model
Propagators:
i. John Holland
ii. D.T. Hall
iii. Edgar Schien
iv. Mondy, Noe and Premeanx
Codes
A B C D
(a) ii iii i iv
(b) iii ii i iv
(c) iii iv i ii
(d) ii iv iii i
(e) iv iii ii i

S2. Ans. (c)
Sol. Edgar Schien’s career anchor model is one's self-concept, and consists of one's perceptions of one's talents and abilities, one's basic values and one's perceptions of motives and needs as they pertain to career.
Mondy, Noe and Premeaux developed a career path model to assist employees in developing their career paths and as a consequence may lead to enhanced job satisfaction in workplace .
John Holland's Theory of Career Choice maintains that in choosing a career, people prefer jobs where they can be around others who are like them.
A model of career development is given by D.T. Hall. Career development is the process by which the employees progress through a series of stages (1) Models of career development (2)Life cycle model (3) Organization-based model (4)Directional pattern model

Q.3. Who advanced the concept of ‘Three tier institutional structure’ of Industrial Relations ?
(a) John T. Dunlop
(b) Allan Flanders
(c) D.T. Hall
(d) Roy Adam
(e) Kochan, Katz & Mckersie

S3. Ans. (e)
Sol. Kochan, Katz and Mckersie developed a three-tier institutional structure. A three-tier organizational structure separates the top-level decision makers from the bottom-level staff by a middle layer of management oversight generally made up of regional, divisional or subsidiary managers.

Q.4. Which approach to job design has key element called the task idea to job specialization?
(a) Engineering Approach
(b) Human Relations
(c) Socio technical Approach
(d) Job characteristics Approach
(e) Industrial relations

S4. Ans. (a)
Sol. Job Engineering: This method of job design focuses on the tasks to be done, the time involved in doing the tasks, and the efficiency of product or service flow through the process.

Q.5. In which country the trade union movement began with industrial unions ?
(a) Great Britain
(b) U.S.A.
(c) India
(d) Canada
(e) Africa

S5. Ans. (a)
Sol. Originating in Great Britain, trade unions became popular in many countries during the Industrial Revolution. Trade unions may be composed of individual workers, professionals, past workers, students, apprentices or the unemployed.

Q.6. If there are ____ numbers of employees, then the employer has to provide a canteen.
(a) 250
(b) 510
(c) 320
(d) 100
(e) 150

S6. Ans. (a)
Sol. Factories Act, 1948 made some provisions to ensure welfare of the workers under Section 46. State Govts. are empowered to frame Rules requiring that in every factory, wherein more than two hundred fifty workers are ordinarily employed, a canteen shall be maintained by the occupier for the use of workers.

Q.7. Leave with wages is allowed for employees if they work for _______ days in a month.
(a) 15
(b) 25
(c) 20
(d) 28
(e) 12

S7. Ans. (c)
Sol. Every worker who has worked for a period of 240 days or more in a factory during a calendar year shall be allowed during the subsequent calendar year, leave with wages for a number of days calculated at the rate of- if an adult, one day for every twenty days of work performed by him during the previous calendar year.

Q.8. Welfare Officers are to be appointed if Organisation is engaging ______ or more employees.
(a) 500
(b) 250
(c) 600
(d) 750
(e) 300

S8. Ans. (a)
Sol. In every factory wherein five hundred or more workers are ordinarily employed, the occupier shall employ in the factory such number of welfare officers as may be prescribed.

Q.9. Housing is a statutory welfare under which of the following Acts ?
(a) Factories’ Act
(b) Mines Act
(c) Shops and Commercial Establishment Act
(d) Plantation Labour Act
(e) Pension Act

S9. Ans. (d)
Sol. Plantation Labour Act, 1951 states It shall be the duty of every employer to provide and maintain necessary housing accommodation(a) For every worker (including his family) residing in the plantation; (b)For every worker (including his family) residing outside the plantation, who has put in six months of continuous service in such plantation and who has expressed a desire in writing to reside in the plantation.

Q.10. The minimum subscription rate for members of trade unions of rural workers shall not be less than Rs.
(a) 12 per annum
(b) 3 per annum
(c) 1 per annum
(d) 5 per annum
(e) No such provision

S10. Ans. (c)
Sol. The Trade union (amendment) act, 2001 states that the payment of a minimum subscription by members of the Trade Union which shall not be less than- (i) one rupee per annum for rural workers; (ii) three rupees per annum for workers in other unorganised sectors; and (iii) twelve rupees per annum for workers in any other case.

Current Affairs Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2017: 29th Dec 2017

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Dear Aspirants,

Current Affairs Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2017: 26th Dec 2017

Welcome to the world of Current Affairs 2017. With IBPS SO Prelims and IBPS Clerk Mains round the corner, it should be your priority to cover every aspect of Current Affairs on a daily basis for IBPS Clerk and IBPS SO Prelims so that you can do well in the exam. These current affairs are based on current news. Let us see how many questions you attempt accurately.

Q1. Name the Indian Actor/Actress who has been named PETA's Person of the Year by animal rights organization People for Ethical Treatment of Animals (PETA).
(a) Akshay Kumar
(b) Aishwarya Rai
(c) Anushka Sharma
(d) Sonam Kapoor
(e) Ranveer Singh

S1. Ans.(c)
Sol. Actress Anushka Sharma has been named PETA's Person of the Year by animal rights organisation People for Ethical Treatment of Animals (PETA).

Q2. Name the Hollywood actor who has been named the top-grossing actor of 2017 by Forbes, with $1.6 billion.
(a) Dwayne Johnson
(b) Vin Diesel
(c) Tom Cruise
(d) Adam Sandler
(e) Johnny Depp

S2. Ans.(b)
Sol. Vin Diesel has been named the top-grossing actor of 2017 by Forbes, with $1.6 billion in global ticketing receipts from his film 'The Fate of the Furious'. The second spot was occupied by Dwayne Johnson 'The Rock', with $1.5 billion receipts.

Q3. The President of India, Ram Nath Kovind has recently dedicated four major projects to the people of _____________.
(a) Karnataka
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Andhra Pradesh
(e) Punjab

S3. Ans.(d)
Sol. The President of India, Ram Nath Kovind, dedicated to the people of Andhra Pradesh four projects of the State Government at a function held at Velagapudi, Andhra Pradesh. The Projects were Andhra Pradesh Fibregrid Project, Andhra Pradesh Surveillance Project, Drone Project; and Free Space Optical Communication (FSOC) system.

Q4. Union Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare Minister has recently launched LDF-Mobile App. LDF stands for ________________.
(a) Livestock Disease Forewarning
(b) Liver Disease Forewarning
(c) Live Disability Forewarning
(d) Leverage Disease Forewarning
(e) Liver Disability Forewarning

S4. Ans.(a)
Sol. Union Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare Minister, Shri Radha Mohan Singh has launched Livestock Disease Forewarning –Mobile Application (LDF-Mobile App). The app is developed by ICAR-National Institute of Veterinary Epidemiology and Disease Informatics (ICAR-NIVEDI), Bengaluru.

Q5. In which of the following state the President Ramnath Kovind inaugurated the 100th Annual Conference of the Indian Economic Association?
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Assam
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Andhra Pradesh
(e) Bihar

S5. Ans.(d)
Sol. President Ramnath Kovind inaugurated the 100th Annual Conference of the Indian Economic Association at Acharya Nagarjuna University in Guntur of Andhra Pradesh. The event will be held for four days.

Q6. India is set to leapfrog _____________ in 2018 to become the world’s fifth-largest economy in dollar terms.
(a) Britain
(b) Germany
(c) Both (a) and (e)
(d) Both (a) and (b)
(e) France

S6. Ans.(c)
Sol. India is set to leapfrog Britain and France in 2018 to become the world’s fifth-largest economy in dollar terms. The Centre for Economics and Business Research (CEBR) consultancy’s 2018 World Economic League Table painted an upbeat view of the global economy, boosted by cheap energy and technology prices.

Q7. Name the shooter who won the women’s 25m pistol gold with a new record at the ongoing 61st National Shooting Championship Competitions.
(a) Ankur Mittal
(b) Anisa Sayyed
(c) Karni Singh
(d) Minika Hooda
(e) Gurmeet Kaur

S7. Ans.(b)
Sol. Haryana shooter Anisa Sayyed won the women’s 25m pistol gold with a new record at the ongoing 61st National Shooting Championship Competitions (61st NSCC), in Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala.

Q8. Name the e-commercial platform that has become country's first payments app to cross the 100 million downloads mark on playstore.
(a) Paytm
(b) Flipkart
(c) Amazon
(d) Oxigen
(e) Freecharge

S8. Ans.(a)
Sol. India's largest mobile-first financial services platform, Paytm announced that its app has crossed the 100 million milestone on Google Play Store in the second week of December 2017. This makes Paytm the country's first payments app to cross the 100 million downloads mark.

Q9. Which among the following Veteran singer has been selected for prestigious 'Harivarasanam' award 2017, instituted by the Kerala government?
(a) K J Yesuda
(b) M Jayachandran
(c) S P Balasubramanyam
(d) K S Chitra
(e) Kavitha Krishnamurthy

S9. Ans.(d)
Sol. Veteran singer K S Chitra has been selected for prestigious 'Harivarasanam' award 2017, instituted by the Kerala government. The award carrying a cash prize of Rs one lakh, citation and plaque would be presented to the veteran playback singer at a function on January 14, 2018.

Q10. Mumbai based People for Ethical Treatment of Animals (PETA) India was launched in ________________.
(a) 1995
(b) 1998
(c) 1992
(d) 2004
(e) 2000

S10. Ans.(e)
Sol. People for Ethical Treatment of Animals (PETA) India, based in Mumbai, was launched in January 2000.

Q11. Name the Senior IPS officer who has been appointed Director General of Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB).
(a) Vikram Sinha
(b) Jatinder Saroha
(c) Mayank Aggrawal
(d) Abhay
(e) Manoj

S11. Ans.(d)
Sol. Senior IPS officer Abhay was appointed Director General of Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB). He is at present working in Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF).

Q12. Bob Givens had passed away recently at the age of 99. He was famous ______________.
(a) Writer
(b) Animator
(c) Film Director
(d) Pop Singer
(e) Football Player

S12. Ans.(b)
Sol. Bob Givens, one of the animators behind designing the iconic characters Bugs Bunny and Elmer Fudd, died at the age of 99. He was from the USA.

Q13. India successfully test-fired its indigenously developed Advanced Air Defence (AAD) supersonic missile. It is a/an _______________ missile.
(a) Fighter
(b) Navigator
(c) Interceptor
(d) Air-to-air
(e) Air-to-surface

S13. Ans.(c)
Sol. India successfully test-fired its indigenously developed Advanced Air Defence (AAD) supersonic interceptor missile, capable of destroying any incoming ballistic missile at low altitude, from a test range in Odisha. This was the third supersonic interceptor test carried out this year in which an incoming ballistic missile target was successfully intercepted, within a 30km altitude of the earth’s atmosphere by an interceptor.

Q14. According to the country's largest lender, SBI, its board has approved raising ______________ through various sources, including masala bonds, to meet Basel III capital norms.
(a) Rs 8,000 crore
(b) Rs 8,200 crore
(c) Rs 8,500 crore
(d) Rs 7,500 crore
(e) Rs 7,800 crore

S14. Ans.(a)
Sol. According to the country's largest lender, SBI, its board has approved raising Rs 8,000 crore through various sources, including masala bonds, to meet Basel III capital norms. Masala bonds are rupee denominated specialised debt instruments that can be floated in overseas markets only to raise capital.

Q15. 'Harivarasanam' awards were instituted in ________________.
(a) 2000
(b) 2006
(c) 2009
(d) 2012
(e) 2004

S15. Ans.(d)
Sol. 'Harivarasanam' awards were instituted in 2012.

IBPS RRB PO Interview Experience 2017 -10 (Puneet Gandhi)

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IBPS RRB PO Interview Experience 2017 -10 (Puneet Gandhi)

Dear Aspirants,

IBPS RRB GBO Interview Experience 2017 -2 (Santosh Singh)

IBPS RRB PO is the most sought after recruitment process by banking aspirants. Personal Interview is the final round of IBPS RRB PO 2017 Recruitment. Interview experiences can help you get an insight of the difficulty level, environment, and types of questions that are asked in IBPS RRB PO 2017 Interview Round. Here is the interview experience of Puneet Gandhi.

Centre: Ajmer Aryan College
Date: 29-Dec.-2017
Panel: 2
Time: 8:30 am

I was 2nd to give the interview after documents verification.

Panel- 4 male, 1 female

I wished them all, "Good Morning".

M1: Are you from Ganganagar?
Mere yes bolte hi unka mood change hua coz 2-3 din se continuously wahin se log aa rhe to mujhse reason puchne lge sb wahin se aa rhe ho 2 din se aisa kya h
I replied- I don't know all of them par main wahan se hu.

M2: Coaching kahan se ki?
I replied – from Ganganagar

M3: Gk kahan se padhte ho?
I replied – From newspaper and online sites.

M4: Okay means u know all about GK?
I replied – Not everything. But a little.

F1: Tell me names of Mahasagar nd Mahadweeps?
I replied- 2-3, but not all.

F1: Rajasthan ki boundary se touch hone wali states ke naam btao, then India ki boundary se bhi.
I told some of them but not all.

M2: Tell me 5 functions of NABARD?
I told 3, then M2 was from NABARD, he asked very tough questions jo mujhe samjh mein nhi aye and I said sorry.

M3: What is SHG?
I replied then they asked me the ratio in which they take the loan from a bank. I didn't know and said sorry.

Then they asked me the questions related to my subject.

M1: What is Industrial Law?
I didn't know and said sorry.

M2: What is market economics?
I replied but they were not satisfied.

M4: What is the corporate accounting?
I replied but they were again not satisfied.

F1: What did you do in these 3 years. Because I was a non-college student.
I did my graduation with a private job so, they said that’s why you are not able to answer our questions now.

Then they asked me to Go and have a good day. Overall It was not at all a good experience. It was my first interview. Ab IBPS PO ka bhi hai interview. I hope wo is se acha ho.
I wish u all the best for the interview and result.

English Practice Questions For IBPS SO Prelims 2017 (Answers)

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Dear Aspirants,

English Practice Questions For IBPS SO Prelims 2017

English Section is a topic that is feared by most of the candidates appearing in the IBPS SO and IBPS Clerk Mains Exam. Though the sheer number of concepts and rules may seem intimidating at first, with discipline and the right approach, it is not difficult to master these concepts and their application to questions. Through such English Quizzes for IBPS Clerk, IBPS SO and other upcoming exams, we will provide you with all types of high-level questions to ace the questions based on new pattern English for IBPS SO and IBPS Clerk Mains.

Directions (1-10): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are given bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

Language is not a cultural artefact that we learn the way we learn to tell time or how the federal government works. Instead, it is a distinct piece of the biological makeup of our brains. Language is a complex, specialized skill, which develop in the child spontaneously, without conscious effort or formal instruction, is deployed without awareness of its underlying logic, is qualitatively the same in every individual, and is distinct from more general abilities to process information or behave intelligently. For these reasons some cognitive scientists have described language as a psychological faculty, a mental organ, a neural system, and a computational module. But I prefer the admittedly quaint term "instinct". It conveys the idea that people know how to talk in more or less the sense that spider know how to spin webs. Web-spinning was not invented by some unsung spider genius and does not depend on having had the right education or on having an aptitude for architecture or the construction trades. Rather, spider spin spider webs because they have spider brains, which give them the urge to spin and the competence to succeed. Although there are differences between webs and words, I will encourage you to see language in this way, for it helps to make sense of the phenomena we will explore.
Thinking of language as an instinct inverts the popular wisdom, especially as it has been passed down in the canon of the humanities and social sciences. Language is no more a cultural invention than is upright posture.
It is not manifestation of a general capacity to use symbols: a three-year-old, we shall see, is a grammatical genius, but is quite incompetent at the visual arts, religious iconography, traffic signs, and the other staples of the semiotics curriculum. Though language is a magnificent ability unique to Homo sapiens among living species, it does not call for sequestering the study of human from the domain of biology, for a magnificent ability unique to a particular living species is far from unique in the animal kingdom. Some kinds of bats home in on flying insects using Doppler sonar. Some kinds of migratory birds navigate thousands of miles by calibrating the position of the constellation against the time of day and year. In nature's talent show, we are simply a species of primate with our act, a knack for communicating information about 'who did what to whom' by modulating the sound we make when we exhale.
Once you begin to look at language not as the ineffable essence of human uniqueness but as a biological adaptation to communication information, it is no longer as tempting to see language as an insidious shaper of thoughts, and, we shall see, it is not. Moreover, seeing language as one of nature's engineering marvels—an organ with “that perfection of structure and co-adaptation which justly excites our admiration," in Darwin's words—gives us a new respect for your ordinary Joe and the much-maligned English language (or any language). The complexity of language, from the scientist's point of view, is part of our biological birthright; it is not something that parents teach their children or something that must be elaborated in school—as Oscar Wilde said, "Education admirable thing, but it is well to remember from time to time that nothing that is worth knowing can be taught." A preschooler's tacit knowledge of grammar is more sophisticated than the thickest style manual or the most state-of-the-art computer language system, and the same applies to all healthy human beings, even the notorious syntax-fracturing professional athlete and the, you know, like, inarticulate teenage skateboarder. Finally, since language is the product of a well-engineered biological instinct, we shall see that it is not the nutty barrel of moneys that entertainer-columnists make it out to be.

Q1. According to the passage, which of the following does not stem from popular wisdom on language?
(a) Language is the cultural artefact.
(b) Language is the cultural invention.
(c) Language is learnt as we grow.
(d) Language is unique to Homo sapiens.
(e) Language is a psychological faculty.

S1. Ans.(e)
Sol. Notice the “not” in the question. First the answer option that language is a psychological faculty is attributed to cognitive scientists—and not to popular wisdom. Next, the writer states that he would prefer the word “instinct” rather than “psychological faculty” and then the second paragraph explicitly states: Thinking of language as an instinct inverts the popular wisdom, hence, option (e) becomes the answer.

Q2. Which of the following can be used to replace the "spiders know how to spin webs" analogy as used by the author?
(a) A kitten learning to jump over a wall.
(b) Bees collecting nectar.
(c) A donkey carrying a load.
(d) A horse running a Derby.
(e) A pet dog protecting its owner's property.

S2. Ans.(b)
Sol. All the remaining options are “trained” or acquired skills; rather than instinctive or natural as the comparison must show.

Q3. According to the passage, which of the following is unique to human being?
(a) Ability to use symbols while communicating with one another.
(b) Ability to communicate with each other through voice modulation.
(c) Ability to communicate information to other member of the species.
(d) Ability to used sound as means of communication.
(e) All of the above.

S3. Ans.(b)
Sol. The last sentence of the paragraph states this explicitly. In nature’s talent show, we are simply a species of primate with our act (unique), a knack for communicating information about who did what to whom by modulating the sound (voice modulation) we make when we exhale. Option (a) is incorrect because the writer attributes this ability to bats migratory birds etc. and states that it is not unique.

Q4. According to the passage, complexity of language cannot be taught by parents or at school to children because
(a) Children instinctively know language.
(b) Children learn the language on their own.
(c) Language is not amenable to teaching.
(d) Children know language better than their teachers or parents.
(e) Children are born with the knowledge of semiotics.

S4. Ans.(a)
Sol. This is most clearly stated in the passage. “The complexity of language, from the scientist’s point of view, is part of our biological birthright; it is not something that parents teach their children or something that must be elaborated in schools.”

Q5. Which of the following best summarizes the passage?
(a) Language is unique to Homo sapiens.
(b) Language is neither learnt nor taught.
(c) Language is not a cultural invention or artefact as it is made out.
(d) Language is instinctive ability of human being.
(e) Language is use of symbols unique to human beings.

S5. Ans.(d)
Sol. Option (a) is contrary to the passage. Option (b) and C are vague because it states what language is not. The writer’s purpose is not to state what language is not, but to prove that language is instinctive to humans. Option (d) states what is and the highlight of the passage. Option (e) is contrary to the passage.

Q6. Which of the following is most nearly similar in meaning of the word posture as used in the passage?
(a) perspective
(b) formidable
(c) position
(d) cowardice
(e) spurious

S6. Ans.(c)
Sol. Posture- the position in which someone holds their body when standing or sitting,behave in a way that is intended to impress or mislead.
synonyms- position, pose, attitude, stance,attitude, stance, stand, standpoint, view, point of view, viewpoint, opinion, position

Q7. Which of the following is most nearly similar in meaning of the word manifestation as used in the passage?
(a) concealment
(b) demonstration
(c) vagueness
(d) obscurity
(e) bridge

S7. Ans.(b)
Sol. Manifestation-an event, action, or object that clearly shows or embodies something abstract or theoretical, the action or fact of showing something.
synonyms- display, demonstration, showing, show, exhibition, presentation, indication, illustration, exemplification, exposition, disclosure, declaration, expression, profession,a symptom of an ailment, sign, indication, evidence, proof, token, symptom, testimony, substantiation, mark

Q8. Which of the following is most nearly Opposite in meaning of the word insidious as used in the passage?
(a) endemic
(b) entire
(c) kinship
(d) simplistic
(e) honest

S8. Ans.(b)
Sol. Insidious-proceeding in a gradual, subtle way, but with very harmful effects.
synonyms- stealthy, subtle, surreptitious, sneaking, cunning, crafty, Machiavellian, artful, guileful, sly, wily, tricky, slick, deceitful, deceptive, dishonest, underhand, backhanded, indirect

Q9. Which of the following is most nearly Opposite in meaning of the word tacit as used in the passage?
(a) insinuated
(b) inferred
(c) insinuated
(d) explicit
(e) specializes

S9. Ans.(d)
Sol. Tacit -understood or implied without being stated.
synonyms- implicit, understood, implied, inferred, hinted, suggested, insinuated

Q10. Which of the following is most nearly Opposite in meaning of the word inarticulate as used in the passage?
(a) unuttered
(b) expatiating
(c) disappeared
(d) resentful
(e) adolescents

S10. Ans.(b)
Sol. Inarticulate- unable to express one's ideas or feelings clearly or easily,not clearly expressed or pronounced, not expressed in words.
synonyms- unspoken, silent, unexpressed, wordless, unvoiced, unsaid, unuttered

Directions: (11- 15) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error the answer is (e). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

Q11. We were happy that a)/ the audience responded well b)/ and gave all the speakers c)/ a patiently listening. d)/ No error e).

S11. Ans.(d)
Sol. Replace 'patient' in the place of 'patiently.'

Q12. He received timely support a)/ from his elder brother b)/ who is working abroad c)/ for the last six years. d)/ No error e).

S12. (c)
Sol. Who had been working abroad.

Q13. The notorious gang opened a)/ the door quietly and b)/ escaped in the dark with c)/ whatever they would collect. d)/ No error e).

S13. (d)
Sol. Whatever they had collected. ‘Past perfect tense’ is needed here.

Q14. One of the security men a)/ rushed forward and asked b)/ me whether I c)/ had anything objectionable. d)/ No error e).

S14. (e)
Sol. No error

Q15. We could not a)/ believe that one b)/ of us was c)/ responsible with the act. d)/ No error e).

S15. (d)
Sol. Replace 'for' in place of 'with.'

Frequently Asked questions of Static Awareness for IBPS Exams 2017

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Dear Aspirants,

Prepare Static Awareness G.K. Questions for upcoming banking recruitment exams with this questionnaire of most expected and frequently asked static awareness question for IBPS SO Prelims, IBPS Clerk Mains 2017 other banking and insurance exams.

Q1. Which city houses the headquarters of International Cricket Council (ICC)?
(a) Dubai
(b) Monaco
(c) Brussels
(d) London
(e) Sharjah

S1. Ans.(a)
Sol. ICC is registered in British Virgin Islands. In August 2005 the ICC moved its offices to Dubai, and subsequently closed its offices at Lord's and Monaco. The move to Dubai was made after an 11–1 vote by the ICC's Executive Board in favour.

Q2. In which Indian state is the Keibul Lamjao, world's only floating National Park, situated?
(a) Kerala
(b) Karnataka
(c) Manipur
(d) West Bengal
(e) Assam

S2. Ans.(c)
Sol. Located in Manipur, Keibul Lamjao is the world's only 'floating' sanctuary that comprises 40 sq. km. of wetland overgrown with 1.5 m. deep floating vegetation. The park has several distinguishing features. Apart from the vegetation and terrain, an important highlight of the park is the Loktak lake, the largest freshwater lake in India, a large portion of which falls within the park.

Q3. What is the minimum age limit to become the President of India?
(a) 25 years
(b) 30 years
(c) 35 years
(d) 40 years
(e) 45 years

S3. Ans.(c)
Sol. Article 58 of the Constitution sets the principle qualifications one must meet to be eligible to the office of the President. A President must be:
A citizen of India
Of 35 years of age or above
Qualified to become a member of the Lok Sabha

Q4. Which freedom fighter was popularly known as `Deshbandhu'?
(a) Lala Lajpat Rai
(b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(c) Bhagat Singh
(d) C.F.Andrews
(e) Chittaranjan Das

S4. Ans.(e)
Sol. Chittaranjan Das (C. R. Das) popularly called Deshbandhu "Friend of the country" (5 November 1869 – 16 June 1925) was an Indian politician and Founder-leader of the Swaraj Party in Bengal under British rule.

Q5. What was the original name of renowned Hindi and Urdu writer Munshi Premchand?
(a) Raghupati Sahay
(b) Dhanpatrai Srivastava
(c) Akhtar Hussain Rizvi
(d) Sampooran Singh Kalra
(e) Shanti Swarup

S5. Ans.(b)
Sol. Premchand better known as Munshi Premchand, Munshi being an honorary prefix, was an Indian writer famous for his modern Hindi-Urdu literature. He is one of the most celebrated writers of the Indian subcontinent, and is regarded as one of the foremost Hindustani writers of the early twentieth century. Born Dhanpat Rai Srivastav, he began writing under the pen name "Nawab Rai", but subsequently switched to "Premchand".

Q6. Lumbini, the birth place of Gautam Budhdha, is in which present country?
(A) Nepal
(B) Bhutan
(C) India
(D) Bangladesh
(e) Myanmar

S6. Ans(a)
Sol. Lumbini is a Buddhist pilgrimage site in the Rupandehi District of Nepal. It is the place where, according to Buddhist tradition, Queen Mayadevi gave birth to Siddhartha Gautama in 563 BCE. Gautama, who achieved Enlightenment some time around 528 BCE, became the Gautama Buddha and founded Buddhism.

Q7. Which freedom fighter authored the book Discovery of India?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Bal Gangadhr Tilak
(c) Bhagat Singh
(d) Rabindra Nath Tagore
(e) Jawaharlal Nehru

S7. Ans(e)
Sol. The Discovery of India was written by India's first Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru during his imprisonment in 1942–46 at Ahmednagar fort in Maharashtra, India. The Discovery of India is an honour paid to the rich cultural heritage of India, its history and its philosophy as seen through the eyes of a patriot fighting for the independence of his country.

Q8. Where is the Indian Institute of Science (IISc) situated?
(a) New Delhi
(b) Ahmedabad
(c) Bhubaneshwar
(d) Bengaluru
(e) Mumbai

S8. Ans(d)
Sol. Indian Institute of Science (IISc) is a public university for scientific research and higher education located in Bangalore, India. Established in 1909 with active support from Jamsetji Tata and H.H. Sir Krishnaraja Wodeyar IV, the Maharaja of Mysore. It is also locally known as the "Tata Institute". IISc is widely regarded as India's finest institution in science, and has been ranked at number 11 and 18 worldwide (and ranked 3rd and 6th in Asia).

Q9. What is the motto of the National Cadet Corps (NCC)?
(A) Veerta Aur Vivek
(B) Bharat Mata Ki Jai
(C) Vayam Rakshaamah
(D) Desh Rakshak
(e) Ekta Aur Anushasan

S9. Ans(e)
Sol. The need for having motto for the Corps was discussed in the 11th Central Advisory Committee (CAC) meeting held on 11 Aug 1978. The mottos suggested were "Duty and Discipline"; "Duty, Unity and Discipline"; "Duty and Unity"; "Unity and Discipline". The final decision for selection of "Unity and Discipline" as motto for the NCC was taken in the 12th CAC meeting held on 12 Oct 1980.

Q10. What is the boundary line demarcating India and Pakistan known as?
(a) Curzon Line
(b) Radcliffe Line
(c) McMahon Line
(d) Durand Line
(e) None of the above

S10. Ans(b)
Sol. The Radcliffe Line was published on 17 August 1947 as a boundary demarcation line between India and Pakistan upon the Partition of India. It was named after its architect, Sir Cyril Radcliffe, who, as chairman of the Border Commissions, was charged with equitably dividing 175,000 square miles (450,000 km2) of territory with 88 million people.

Q11. On which river is Bhakra Nangal Dam, the highest gravity dam in world, is constructed?
(a) Sutlej
(b) Jhelum
(c) Chenab
(d) Beas
(e) Ravi

S11. Ans(a)
Sol. Bhakra Dam is a concrete gravity dam across the Satluj River in Bilaspur, Himachal Pradesh in northern India. The dam, located at a gorge near the upstream Bhakra village in Bilaspur district of Himachal Pradesh of height 226 m. The length of the dam is 518.25 m and the width is 9.1 m. Its reservoir known as "Gobind Sagar" stores up to 9.34 billion cubic metres of water.

Q12. What is the common name of Indian national tree `Ficus Bengalensis'?
(a) Neem
(b) Bargad (Banyan)
(c) Aam (Mango)
(d) Peepal
(e) Sheesham

S12. Ans(b)
Sol. Banyan often refers specifically to the Indian banyan (Ficus benghalensis), which is the national tree of the Republic of India, though the term has been generalized to include all figs that share a characteristic life cycle, and systematically to refer to the subgenus Urostigma.

Q13. Who among the following is considered as the father of Mobile Phone?
(a) Percy Spencer
(b) Martin Cooper
(c) Tim Berners-Lee
(d) Edwin Land
(e) None of the above

S13. Ans(b)
Sol. Martin is an American engineer. He is a pioneer and visionary in the wireless communications industry. He is recognized as an innovator in radio spectrum management. While at Motorola in the 1970s, Cooper conceived the first handheld mobile phone in 1973 and led the team that developed it and brought it to market in 1983. He is considered the "father of the cell phone" and is also cited as the first person in history to make a handheld cellular phone call in public.

Q14. The significant rise in production of which commodity is referred as `Yellow Revolution'?
(a) Grains
(b) Pulses
(c) Textile
(d) Fruits and Vegetables
(e) Oilseeds

S14. Ans(e)
Sol. The growth, development and adoption of new varieties of oilseeds and complementary technologies nearly doubled oilseeds production from 12.6 mt in 1987-88 to 24.4 mt in 1996-97, catalyzed by the Technology Mission on Oilseeds, brought about the Yellow Revolution.

Q15. In which mountain range is the Siachen Glacier, the world's longest glacier, located?
(a) Karakoram
(b) Himalayas
(c) Hindu Kush
(d) Tien Shan
(e) None of the above

S15. Ans(a)
Sol. The glacier lies between the Saltoro Ridge immediately to the west and the main Karakoram range to the east. The Saltoro Ridge originates in the north from the Sia Kangri peak on the China border in the Karakoram range. The crest of the Saltoro Ridge's altitudes range from 5,450 to 7,720 m (17,880 to 25,330 feet).

Must Do Current Affairs Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2017

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Dear Readers,

Current-Affairs-Questions-for-IBPS-Exams-2017

It is time to pace up your preparation with Current Affairs in 2017 for the upcoming bank and insurance exams. Current Affairs plays an important part if you want a job in the government sector as you must be aware of important news not only for the written examination but also for the Interview Phase. These G.K current affair questions and answers will also help you in preparing for banking examination.

Q1. Nepal Electricity Authority (NEA) has signed a joint venture agreement with CTGC to construct 750 MW West Seti Hydropower Project. CTGC is a/an _____________.
Answer: Chinese company

Q2. International rating agency Moody's Investors Service has upgraded India's local and foreign currency issuer ratings to _________________.
Answer: Baa2 from Baa3

Q3. Who is the present president of International rating agency Moody's Analytics?
Answer: Mark Almeida

Q4. Name the Indian Economist who was appointed to the Financial Stability Institute Advisory Board of the Bank of International Settlement (BIS).
Answer: RBI Governor Urjit Patel

Q5. President Ram Nath Kovind launched various schemes entailing total expenditure of Rs 3,455 crore in which state to coincide with the state's 17th Foundation Day?
Answer: Jharkhand

Q6. Name the country with which India has agreed to deepen security cooperation, bilaterally and in the multilateral fora, and strengthen strong commitment to combating terrorism in all its forms and manifestations.
Answer: France

Q7. Reliance General Insurance has signed a comprehensive bancassurance-corporate agency agreement with ________________.
Answer: YES Bank

Q8. The Centre has given an in-principle approval to provide an assistance of Rs 10,000 crore to fund 107 irrigation projects in drought-hit regions of which state?
Answer: Maharashtra

Q9. The WHO Global Ministerial Conference “Ending TB in the Sustainable Development Era: A Multisectoral Response” was held in _______________.
Answer: Moscow, Russia

Q10. Name the shooter who has recently bagged a National Champion Crown when she won the women's trap event at the 61st National Shooting Championship.
Answer: Shagun Chowdhary

Q11. Name the India's beauty pageant who has won the coveted Miss World 2017 crown at a grand event in China.
Answer: Manushi Chhillar

Q12. India has recently paid homage to former Prime Minister Indira Gandhi on her birth anniversary. This was her ____________ birth anniversary.
Answer: 100th

Q13. Name the Indian Economist who will receive the Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development this year.
Answer: Manmohan Singh

Q14. The Centre has recently raised import duty on crude palm oil to ____________ from 15 percent.
Answer: 30 percent

Q15. The Qaumi Ekta Week is being observed across the country from ______________ to foster and reinforce the spirit of communal harmony and national Integration.
Answer: 19th November

Current Affairs: Daily GK Update 28th December 2017

By QA channel With No comments:

Dear Readers,

Study Daily Current Affairs from Daily GK Update and stay updated as well as prepare for General Awareness section of bank exams. It's time to gear up your preparations for IBPS SO and Clerk and with the daily dose of current affairs, you can easily prepare G.A and score well.

1. India to Overtake UK, France to Become 5th-Largest Economy in 2018

i. India is set to leapfrog Britain and France in 2018 to become the world’s fifth-largest economy in dollar terms.
ii. The Centre for Economics and Business Research (CEBR) consultancy’s 2018 World Economic League Table painted an upbeat view of the global economy, boosted by cheap energy and technology prices. India is currently in seventh place in the top world economies with $2 trillion.

Top 3 Economies of the world according to the World Economic Forum are-
The USA ($18 trillion),
China ($11 trillion),
Japan ($4.4 trillion).

2. President Inaugurated 100th Indian Economic Association Conference

i. President Ramnath Kovind inaugurated the 100th Annual Conference of the Indian Economic Association at Acharya Nagarjuna University in Guntur of Andhra Pradesh. The event will be held for four days.
ii. Indian Economic Association is a registered body of Indian economic professionals with an objective of providing a forum for debate and discussion of policy-oriented issues.

Static/Current Takeaways Important for IBPS Clerk Mains 2017 Exam-
Indian Economic Association (IEA) Established in- 1917.
President of IEA (Conference)- Prof. C. Rangarajan.
President of IEA (Association)- Prof. Sukhadeo Thorat.

3. President Dedicated 4 Projects to Andhra Pradesh

i. The President of India, Ram Nath Kovind, dedicated to the people of Andhra Pradesh four projects of the State Government at a function held at Velagapudi, Andhra Pradesh.
ii. The Projects were Andhra Pradesh Fibregrid Project, Andhra Pradesh Surveillance Project, Drone Project; and Free Space Optical Communication (FSOC) system. The President focused on the 24/7 hyper-connected world and the online presence of the government.

Static/Current Takeaways Important for IBPS Clerk Mains 2017 Exam-
Andhra Pradesh CM- N Chandrababu Naidu, Governor- ESL Narasimhan.

4. Agriculture Minister Launches Livestock Disease Forewarning (LDF) Mobile App

i. Union Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare Minister, Shri Radha Mohan Singh has launched Livestock Disease Forewarning –Mobile Application (LDF-Mobile App). The app is developed by ICAR-National Institute of Veterinary Epidemiology and Disease Informatics (ICAR-NIVEDI), Bengaluru.
ii. Apart from early warning, the app will also provide information about clinical samples for the diagnosis in case of the epidemic so that immediate action can be taken in case of the epidemic.

Static/Current Takeaways Important for IBPS Clerk Mains 2017 Exam-
ICAR- Indian Council of Agricultural Research.
Formerly known as Imperial Council of Agricultural Research, it was established on 16 July 1929.

5. SBI Gets Board Approval to Raise Rs 8,000 crore to Comply Basel III

i. According to the country's largest lender, SBI, its board has approved raising Rs 8,000 crore through various sources, including masala bonds, to meet Basel III capital norms.
ii. Masala bonds are rupee denominated specialised debt instruments that can be floated in overseas markets only to raise capital. Banks in India have to comply with the global capital norms under Basel III by March 2019, three months later than the internationally agreed time frame by January 2019.

Static/Current Takeaways Important for IBPS Clerk Mains 2017 Exam-
SBI Chairman- Rajnish Kumar, Headquarters- Mumbai, Established on- 1st July 1955.

6. Paytm Becomes India's First Payments App to Cross 100 mn Downloads on Play Store

i. India's largest mobile-first financial services platform, Paytm announced that its app has crossed the 100 million milestone on Google Play Store in the second week of December 2017.
ii. This makes Paytm the country's first payments app to cross the 100 million downloads mark.

Static/Current Takeaways Important for IBPS Clerk Mains 2017 Exam-
Vijay Shekhar Sharma is the CEO of Paytm.
Paytm headquarters in Noida.

7. India Successfully Test-Fires AAD Supersonic Interceptor Missile

i. India successfully test-fired its indigenously developed Advanced Air Defence (AAD) supersonic interceptor missile, capable of destroying any incoming ballistic missile at low altitude, from a test range in Odisha.
ii. This was the third supersonic interceptor test carried out this year in which an incoming ballistic missile target was successfully intercepted, within a 30km altitude of the earth’s atmosphere by an interceptor. The interceptor is a 7.5-meter long single stage solid rocket propelled guided missile equipped with a navigation system.

Static/Current Takeaways Important for IBPS Clerk Mains 2017 Exam-
Abdul Kalam Island in Odisha was previously known as Wheeler Island.

8. Abhay Appointed Director General of Narcotics Control Bureau

i. Senior IPS officer Abhay was appointed Director General of Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB). He is at present working in Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF).
ii. The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet has approved his appointment to the post till November 18, 2019. The post was lying vacant after R R Bhatnagar took over as DG of CRPF in April 2017.

Static/Current Takeaways Important for IBPS Clerk Mains 2017 Exam-
The Government of India constituted the Narcotics Control Bureau on the 17th of March, 1986.

9. K S Chitra bags 'Harivarasanam' Award

i. Veteran singer K S Chitra has been selected for prestigious 'Harivarasanam' award 2017, instituted by the Kerala government.
ii. The award carrying a cash prize of Rs one lakh, citation and plaque would be presented to the veteran playback singer at a function on January 14, 2018.

Static/Current Takeaways Important for IBPS Clerk Mains 2017 Exam-
'Harivarasanam' awards were instituted in 2012.
Singers K J Yesudas, M Jayachandran, S P Balasubramanyam, Gangai Amaran and M G Sreekumar are among earlier winners.

10. Anisa Wins Women’s 25m Pistol with New National Record

i. Haryana shooter Anisa Sayyed won the women’s 25m pistol gold with a new record at the ongoing 61st National Shooting Championship Competitions (61st NSCC), in Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala.
ii. Anisa shot a new finals national record score of 33 to prevail over the Maharashtra duo of Shital Shivaji Thorat and Rahi Sarnobat, who won the silver and bronze medals respectively at the National Games Shooting Range.

Static/Current Takeaways Important for IBPS Clerk Mains 2017 Exam-
60th National Shooting Championship Competitions (Rifle/Pistol) was held in Pune, Maharashtra.
National Rifle Association of India (NRAI) was founded in 1951.
Raninder Singh- NRAI President.

11. The creator of Bugs Bunny, Bob Givens, Passes Away at 99

i. Bob Givens, one of the animators behind designing the iconic characters Bugs Bunny and Elmer Fudd, died at the age of 99. He was from the USA.
ii. He also brought his skills to TV advertising, animating cartoon insects for Raid bug-killer commercials.

GK DAILY

DAILY GK UPDATE - Download PDF

Saturday, December 30, 2017

Current Affairs: Daily GK Update 30th December 2017

Current Affairs Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains 2017: 30th Dec 2017

Reasoning Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains Exam

Reasoning Questions for IBPS Clerk Mains Exam

English Practice Questions For IBPS Clerk Mains 2017 (Answers)

English Practice Questions For IBPS Clerk Mains 2017 (Answers)

Frequently Asked questions of Static Awareness for IBPS Exams 2017

Professional Knowledge Questions for IBPS SO HR Mains 2017

Friday, December 29, 2017

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IBPS RRB PO Interview Experience 2017 -10 (Puneet Gandhi)

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